Common Entrance Test Sample Papers

Mar 27 • Competition Sample Papers • 9461 Views • 1 Comment on Common Entrance Test Sample Papers

Common Entrance Test is organized for admission to Dental,Medical and Engineering courses.The sample paper contains questions from physics,chemistry,maths,biology.Here we have set common entrance test sample papers to help students to prepare.


1.Phylogeny means

Common Entrance Test Sample papers

CET Sample papers

1. study of embryonic development
2. study of evolutionary history of animals
3. study of environment
4. none of the above

2. The tissue formed by phellogen is

1. phelloderm
2. periderm
3. phellem
4. none of these
Ans-1 and 3
3. Which of the following is a hereditary disease?

1. Colour blindness
2. Scurvy
3. Beri beri
4. Cancer

4. Adenohypophysis is derivation of

1. Hypothalamus
2. Medulla
3. Spinal cord
4. Cerebrum

5. The largest gland in man is

1. Liver
2. Pancreas
3. Thyroid
4. Pituitary

6. Ectoderm gives rise to

1. Nervous system
2. Digestive system
3. Endocrine glands
4. None of the above

7. Ovulation is caused by

2. FSH
3. LH
4. None of these

8. The function of progesterone is

1. To maintain pregnancy
2. To prepare uterus for pregnancy
3. Implantation of embryo
4. All the above

9. Fertilization in mammals takes place in

1. Fallopian tube
2. Ovary
3. Uterus
4. None of the above

10. A typical population growth curve is

1. Paraboloid
2. Sigmoid
3. Hyperboloid
4. Ellipsoid

11. Animals that maintain a constant body temperature are

1. Homeotherms
2. Poikilotherms
3. Anemotherms
4. None of the above

12. The compound in synapse transmission is

1. Acetylcholine
2. Epinephrine
3. Iodine
4. Adrenaline

13. Axon is covered by

1. Myelin sheath
2. Dendron
3. Medullary sheath
4. None of the above

14. Which of the following is not a harmone?

1. Saliva
2. Secretin
3. Insulin
4. Thyroxin

15. The products of protein hydrolysis are

1. Amino acids
2. Sugars
3. Fatty acids
4. None of these

16. The structural and functional unit of kidney is

1. Neuron
2. Nephron
3. Dendron
4. Blood

17. The universal recipient blood group is

1. A
2. AB
3. O
4. B

18. Total number of genes in a population is called as

1. Gene mutation
2. Genetic drift
3. Genome
4. Gene pool

19. A population is

1. Number of organisms of same genus occupying the same place
2. The of organisms of same species at a certain time in place
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above

20. Two organisms cannot occupy the same niche. This was found out by

1. Darwin
2. Lemarck
3. Elton
4. None of these

21. Food for developing foetus in mammals is supplied by

1. Placenta
2. Ovary
3. Yolk sac
4. Uterus

22. Some animals and plantsinvaginate and take fluid in to the cell. It is called

1. Phagocytosis
2. Diffusion
3. Pinocytosis
4. Cyclosis

23. Bowman’s capsule is a part of the

1. Nephron
2. Neuron
3. Cerebrum
4. Spinal cord

24. Principally man is

1. Uricotelic
2. Ureotelic
3. Ammonotelic
4. Mixedon

25. The axon of a nerve helps in

1. Transformation of impulse
2. Conduction of impulse
3. Generation of impulse
4. Stimulation of centron

26. The floating organisms are called as

1. Plankton
2. Neketon
3. Benton
4. None of these

27. During maturation division

1. The chromosome number is doubled
2. The chromosome number is halved
3. The chromosome number is remains unchanged
4. None of the above

28. Lateral ventricles are present in

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla
4. Spinal cord

29. Blood is a / an

1. Organ system
2. Organ
3. Tissue
4. Cell

30. The bag containing a liquid in which the foetus is enclosed is

1. Amnion
2. Chorion
3. Pouch
4. Capsule

31. Holoblastic cleavage occurs in

1. Elecithal egg
2. Telolecithal egg
3. Mesolecithal egg
4. Microlecithal egg

32. During digestion starch is converted in to glucose. The inter-mediate product is

1. Sucrose
2. Fructose
3. Lactose
4. Maltose

33. Sex harmones are

1. Steroids
2. Glycoprotiens
3. Proteins
4. Vitamins

34. Gastrulation begins with

1. Movement of blastomeres
2. Dissolution of ectoderm
3. Formation of blastocoel
4. Disappearance of archenteron

35. The grey crescent area has its importance during

1. Blastula
2. Morula
3. Gastrula
4. Neurula

36. The wild life sanctuary in assam is

1. Kaziranga national park
2. Manas wild life sanctuary
3. Jim Corbett national park
4. none of the above

37. Pineal body is from the stomodium of

1. hypothalamus
2. proencephalon
3. cerebellum
4. mesentrop

38. Mammalan erithrocites have

1. no nuclei
2. many nuclei
3. one nucleus
4. two nuclei

39. ACTH is secreted by

1. islets of langerhans
2. pituitary
3. adrenal
4. thyroid


40. Insulin is secreted by

1. delta cells
2. alpha cells
3. beta cells
4. none of these

41. Plants occupy the first place in the ecosystem because

1. they synthesize food for themselves and for animals
2. they consume lot of food
3. they eat insects sometimes
4. none of the above

42. Amniotes are characterized by

1. amnion and allantois
2. allantois and nephron
3. amnion and epidermis
4. amnion and endodermis

43. Homologous organ are those which have

1. same origin but different function
2. different origin but same function
3. same structure and same function
4. same function and different structure

44. Reproduction without fertilization is called as

1. heterozygous
2. apomixes
3. aneuploid
4. chimera

45. The most ancient marsupial is

1. paramales
2. opossum
3. cat
4. kangaroo

46. Insulin controls

1. blood sugar
2. blood proteins
3. fat emulsification
4. none of the above

47. The mammary glands are stimulated by

1. LH
2. ADH
3. FSH
4. LTH

48. The improvement of genetic characters in man is termed

1. Genetics
2. Eugenics
3. Heredity
4. Variation

49. Androgen is an

1. Enzyme
2. Sugar
3. Hormone
4. Amine

50. Sperms are produced in

1. Vas deference
2. Seminiferous tubules
3. Spermatocytes
4. None of the above

51. A region that selectively accumulates iodine in the body is

1. Thymus
2. Spleen
3. Thyroid
4. Pituitary

52. The animal which has become extinct recently in India is

1. Cheetah
2. Chakar
3. Hyena
4. Nilgai

53. In places having heavy traffic, a layer of ………. Is formed

1. Smoke
2. Fog
3. Smog
4. Mist

54. Gastrulation is a process of

1. Formation of ectoderm
2. Formation of blastula
3. Formation of gastrula
4. None of the above

55. The scientific name of Indian monkey is

1. Macaca
2. Gorilla
3. Panther
4. Chimpanzee

56. The sex chromosomes are also called

1. Autosomes
2. Allosomes
3. Heterosomes
4. Homosomes

57. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by

1. Lamarck
2. Darwin
3. Mendel
4. Hogo de vries

58. The iii, iv and v cranial nerves in frog are

1.Facial, abducens and trigeminal
2.Optic, oculomotor and vagus
3. Oculomotor, vagus and trochlear
4.Oculomotor, trochlear and trigeminal

59. The principal cavity in a complete gastrula of frog is called

2. Blastocoel
4. Neurocoel

60. Corpus luteum is a hormone secreted by

1. Brain
2. Ovary
4. Spleen

1.P2O3 reacts with cold water to produce

1) Phosphorus acid
2) Phosphoric acid
3) Metaphosphoric acid
4) Pyrophosphoric acid

2. Bones and teeth contain

1) Calcium phosphate
2) Calcium fluoro phosphate
3) Calcium sodium phosphate
4) Calcium hydrogen phosphate

3. When sodium dihydrogen phosphate is heated we get

1) Sodium meta phosphate
2) Sodium pyro phosphate
3) Sodium hypo phosphate
4) Sodium phosphide

4. Micro cosmic salt when heated gives

1) Sodium meta phosphate
2) Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
3) Sodium hydrogen phosphate
4) Sodium hypo phosphate

5. Super phosphate of lime contains

1) Calcium dihydrogen phosphate
2) Tricalcium phosphate
3) Calcium hydrogen phosphate
4) Calcium phosphate

6. Froth flotation process is used to concentrate

1) Oxide ores
2) Carbonate ores
3) Sulphide ores
4) Chloride ores

7. NaCN is used in the extraction of

1) Iron
2) Copper
3) Magnesium
4) Gold

8. Decahydrate of sodium carbonate is called

1) Baking soda
2) Washing soda
3) Soda ash
4) Caustic soda

9. Sodium carbonate solution is basic because of

1) Hydrolysis
2) Electrolysis
3) Electrophoresis
4) neutralisation

10. The ore of copper is

1) Malachite
2) Apatite
3) Dolomite
4) Haematite

11. Alum is used in the purification of water as

1) It gives trivalent cations
2) A germicide
3) A coagulant
4) A deodoriser

12. In the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process, lime and magnesia [calcined dolomite] are coated as a lining

1) To protect the converter
2) To remove silicon and phosphorus
3) To react with iron
4) To get low grade iron

13. Ethyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH to give

1) Ethane
2) Ether
3) Ethylene
4) Ethanol

14. Alcoholic AgNO3 does not give white precipitate with

1) C6H5–CH2Cl
2) C6H5CH2CH2Cl
3) C6H5Cl

15. Alkyl halide reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form

1) Grignard reagent
2) Schiff’s reagent
3) Tollen’s reagent
4) Gabriel’s reagent

16. Which of the compounds does not react with benzene in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3?

1) C6H5Cl
2) C6H5CH2Cl
3) CH3Cl
4) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Cl

17. Vinyl chloride has great importance in

1) Synthetics
2) Chemicals
3) Plastics
4) Antiseptics

18. Acetylene is stored in

1) Compressed form
2) Acetone
3) Aluminium carbide
4) Calcium carbide

19. RX + 2 Na + R‘X → 2 NaX + RR’. The reaction is an example of

1) Friedel-Crafts reaction
2) Wurtz reaction
3) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
4) Cannizzaro’s reaction

20. The mixture of ethanol and water cannot be separated by distillation because

1) They form a constant boiling mixture
2) Alcohol molecules are solvated
3) Their boiling points are very near
4) Alcohol remains dissolved in water

21. Ethyl alcohol is denatured by adding

1) Methanol and pyridine
2) Glycerol
3) Aniline
4) Ether and methanol

22. Ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4. The conditions are

1) Excess of H2SO4 and 1700C
2) Excess of ethyl alcohol and 1400C
3) Excess of ethyl alcohol and 1800C
4) Excess of conc. H2SO4 and 1000C

23. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol using

1) Fehling’s solution
2) Schiffs reagent
3) Sodium hydroxide and iodine
4) Phthalein fusion test

24. Phenol is recovered from

1) Coal tar
2) Middle oil
3) Naphthalene
4) Benzene

25. Phenol can be distinguished from its colour reaction with

1) neutral FeCl3 solution
2) feSO4 solution
3) BaCl2 solution
4) iodoform reaction

26. In kolbe’s reaction the reacting substances are

1) Phenol and CCl4
2) Sodium phenate and CO2
3) Sodium phenate and CCl4
4) Phenol and CHCl3

27. Salicylic acid when heated with soda lime gives

1) benzene
2) benzyl alcohol
3) phenol
4) salol

28. Cool tar mainly contains the acidic compound

1) Pyridine
2) Phenol
3) Cresol
4) Acetic acid

29. Aniline reacts with alkyl halide to give

1) Amino compound
2) Tertiary compound
3) Azo methane
4) Quaternary ammonium compound

30. Benzene diazonium chloride when heated with water produces

1) Phenol
2) Aniline
3) Benzyl alcohol
4) Chlorobenzene

31. Aniline + HNO2[NaN02 + HCl] →… The reaction is called

1) Diazotisation
2) Nitration
3) Reduction
4) Ammonolysis

32. On a large scale benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzyl chloride by

1) Treating with aqueous NaOH
2) Treating with alkaline KMNO4
3) Treating with alcoholic KOH
4) Hydrolysis with steam in the presence of a catalyst

33. The oxidization of toluene to benzaldehyde is done in the presence of

1) Alkaline KMNO4
2) Acidified K2Cr2O7
3) Cu(NO3)2 solution
4) CrO2Cl2 in CS2

34. The substance used to preserve biological specimens is

1) Acetone
2) Formic acid
3) Acetaldehyde
4) 20% solution of formaldehyde in water

35. Which one of these undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction?

1) C6H5CHO
4) C6H5CH2Cl

36. Aldehydes on oxidation yield

1) Alcohols
2) Acids
3) Ketones
4) Esters

37. Dry calcium acetate is heated in the absence of air. It gives

1) Acetone
2) Acetaldehyde
3) Formaldehyde
4) Benzaldehyde

38. The substances used in perfumery industry are

1) Esters
2) Aldehydes
3) Ketones
4) Ethers

39. Vinegar consists of

1) Citric acid
2) Acetic acid
3) Formic acid
4) Ortho phosphoric acid

40. Destructive distillation of wood gives pyroligneous acid. It contains

1) Acetic acid and acetone
2) Acetic acid, acetone and methanol
3) Wood tar and methanol
4) Methanol and acetic acid

41. Fruits are preserved using

1) Aldehydes
2) Benzoic acid or sodium benzoate
3) Formic acid
4) Salicylic acid

42. The carboxylic acid is converted into acyl chloride by the action of

1) Chlorine
2) HCl
3) CHCl3
4) PCl3

43. The sugar present in fruits is

1) Fructose
2) Glucose
3) Sucrose
4) galactose

44. The intermediate compound in the conversion of starch to glucose is

1) Maltose
2) Lactose
3) Fructose
4) Cane sugar

45. Cane sugaris made up of

1) 5 membered glucose ring and 5 membered fructose ring
2) 6 membered glucose ring and 6 membered fructose ring
3) 6 membered glucose ring and 5 membered fructose ring
4) 6 membered galactose ring and 6 membered fructose ring

46. The solution of iodine in KI is used to detect a solution of starch and glycogen as it gives

1) Blue colour with starch and red colour with glycogen
2) Green colour
3) Green colour with starch, blue with glycogen
4) Red colour with starch, yellow with glycogen

47. The substance that forms the plant cell wall is

1) Cellulose
2) Sucrose
3) Glycogen
4) Starch

48. In the photosynthesis the one which is increased is

1) Carbon
2) Hydrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Carbon dioxide

49. The process which is exact reverse of photosynthesis is

1) Ripening of fruits
2) Digestion of starch
3) Oxidation
4) Burning of wood

50. Oils and fats are

1) Esters
2) Aldehydes
3) Ketones
4) Ethers

51. Fats and oils serve as

1) Reserve food for the body
2) Immediate source of energy
3) Nitrogenous food
4) Control materials of metabolism

52. Hydrolysis of fats and oils yields

1) Dihydric alcohol
2) Trihydric alcohol
3) Esters
4) Unsaturated acids

53. Hydrogenation of oils involves

1) Saturation of unsaturated fatty acids
2) Reaction with hydrogen
3) Conversion into fatty acids
4) Driving off the impurities in oil by hydrogen gas

54. In the esterification reaction of alcohols

1) OHis replaced by C6H5OH
2) H+ is replaced by sodium metal
3) OH is replaced by chlorine
4) OH is replaced by CH3COO group

55. The protein can be best described as

1) Peptide
2) Amino acid
3) Polypeptide
4) Polymer

56. Proteins on digestion yield

1) Amino acids
2) Fatty acids
3) Glycerols
4) Glucose

57. The protein thatis the structural material is

1) Albumen
2) Oxytocin
3) haemoglobin
4) keratin

58. The amino acid among the following is


59. An amino acid contains

1) NH2 and COOH groups
2) NH2 and SO3H groups
3) OH and COOH group
4) NH and SO3H groups

60. Enzymes are active under

1) 00C
2) 370C
3) 1000C
4) Depends on the specific reaction

1. At room temperature a p-type semi-conductor has

1) Equal number of free electrons and holes
2) A large number of free electrons and a few holes
3) A small number of free electrons and a large number of holes
4) Neither electrons nor holes

2. A photon with energy E is characterized by a wavelength given (h= Planck’s constant, c = speed of light)

1) hc/E

3. The average number of atoms disintegrating in a short interval of time during
radioactivity is

1) independent of number of atoms present
2) inversely proportional to time interval
3) inversely proportional to the number of atoms present
4) directly proportional to the number of atoms present

4. identify the correct statement below:

1) Alpha rays have the highest penetrating power
2) Beta rays have the highest penetrating power
3) Gamma rays have the highest penetrating power
4) All the three are equally penetrating

5. State which one of the following materials is most suitable for making coils of a resistance box.

1) Aluminium
2) Telurium
3) Manganin
4) Tungsten

6. The reason a moving coil galvanometer cannot be used with an alternating current is that

1) The coil bends easily
2) The coil heats up too much
3) Sparks can be produced
4) The net magnetic field produced is zero

7. A long straight conductor carrying a current generates at any point a magnetic field whose direction is

1) Parallel to the current
2) Perpendicular to the plane containing the conductor and the point
3) Parallel to the plane containing the conductor and the point
4) Anti-parallel to the current

8. In order to shape a metal into a conductor of minimum resistance, its length and diameter should respectively be

1) 2L, D/2
2) L, D
3) L/2, 2D
4) L, D/2

9. A mark is made on the bottom of a beaker and a liquid of refractive index 1.4 is poured to a height 5 cm. when viewed vertically from the top, the mark seems to be raised by an amount (in cm)

1) 3.57
2) 1.43
3) 5.14
4) 7.0

10. The radii of a curvature of the two faces of a lens have the values 10 cm and 15 cm. If the refractive index of the lens is 1.54, then its focal length is given by (in cm)

1) 9.0
2) 16.2
3) 38.5
4) 11.1

11. Suppose a cell of e.m.f. 2.21 volts and internal resistance 1 ohm is connected in series with an external resistance of 25 ohms. Then the potential difference across the cells is (in volts)

1) 2.125
2) 2.215
3) 0.085
4) 1.22

12. A set of condensers consists of three condensers each having a capacity of 7.2 microfarad connected in series. Another identical set is connected to the first in parallel. The effective capacity of the group as a whole is (in microfarads)

1) 4.8
2) 3.6
3) 10.8
4) 43.2

13. An air-filled parallel plate condenser has a capacity of 2 x 10-12 farad. The separation of the plates is doubled and the interspace filled with wax. If the capacity isincreased to 6*10-12farad, the dielectric coefficient of wax is

1) 2.0
2) 3.0
3) 4.0
4) 6.0

14. The cause for the production of Fraunhofer line is

1) Absorption of elements in solar atmosphere
2) Admission of light by molecules in the interior ofthe sun
3) The magnetic field of the sun
4) Absorption by dust particles in the sky

15. The oscillating electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave is inclined to the direction of propagation and the oscillating magnetic field at the following angles respectively.

1) 900, 450
2) 450, 450
3) 900, 900
4) 450, 900

16. The reason for the blue colour of the sky is one of the following

1) The sky is at a greater distance from us
2) Dispersion of light inside our eyes
3) Atmospheric particles absorb shorter wavelengths more than longer wavelengths
4) Atmospheric particles scatter blue light more than red light

17. There is an air bubble within a liquid. It will act as a

1) Convex lens
2) Convex mirror
3) Concave lens
4) Concave mirror

18. In the case of a convex lens made of flint glass the focal length

1) Is shorter for green colour than for yellow
2) Is longer for blue than for red
3) Is the same for all colours
4) Depends on the colour only when it is used with another lens

19. The direction of the magnetic field above a power line with current flowing north is (neglect the earth’s field)

1) South
2) North
3) East
4) West

20. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced e.m.f. in a circuit is

1) Proportional to density of lines of force
2) Inversely proportional to the rate of change of lines of force
3) Proportional to the total magnetic field produced
4) Directly proportional to the rate of change of lines of force

21. In a nuclear reactor steel coated with boron, boron arc is used because it

1) Absorbs neutrons easily
2) Cools the reactor
3) Adds strength to the structure of the reactor
4) Acts as a catalysts

22. Thermo-nuclear reaction are responsible for energy production

1) At the center of the earth
2) Inside stars
3) In volcanoes
4) In the modern spaceships

23. Tracer techniques make use of

1) Neutron scattering
2) Electron beams
3) Lasers
4) Radioactive isotopes

24. The resistance of a wire at O0C and 800C has the values 5 ohms and 8 ohms respectively. The temperature coefficient of the materials of the wire has the numeric value

1) 0.03
2) 0.0075
3) 0.05
4) 0.001

25. Two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms are connected in parallel and similarly two other resistances of 6 and 9 ohms are connected in parallel. If these two combinations are now connected in series, the effective resistance of the system is (in ohms)

1) 5.221
2) 23.0
3) 4.75
4) 5.48

26. The galvanometer has a resistance of 37 ohms and can measure a current upto 8 milliampere. In order to convert it into a voltmeter that can read upto 40 volts, it has to be connected in series with a resistance (in ohms) of

1) 50040
2) 4963
3) 2010
4) 4050

27. Two resistances are connected in the two gaps of a meter bridge. The balance point is 20 cm. from the zero end. A resistance of 15 ohms is connected in series with the smaller of the two resistances when the null point shifts to 40 cm. The smaller of the two resistances has the value (in ohms)

1) 8
2) 9
3) 10
4) 12

28. When radiation is incident on a photoelectric emitter the stopping potential is determined to be 9 volts. Assuming the charge to mass ratio (e/m) for electron to be 1.8 x 1011 coulomb per kg., the maximum velocity of the ejected electron is found to be (in m./sec)

1) 6 x 105
2) 8 x 105
3) 10 x 105
4) 1.8 x 106

29. Two lenses of powers -2.5 D and +4.0 D are kept in contact. The focal length of the combination is

1) 25 cm
2) 33.3 cm
3) 66.7 cm
4) 50 cm

30. The refractive index of a particular material is 1.67 for blue light, 1.65 for yellow light and 1.63 for red light. The dispersive power of the material is

1) 0.0615
2) 0.024
3) 0.031
40) 1.60

31. The critical angle for a ray of light experiencing total internal reflection will be least for light passing from

1) Water to air
2) Glass to water
3) Glass to air
4) Water to glass

32. A man is swimming under water with undisturbed surface. Looking up at the bright sky through the water, he will see

1) A bright patch directly above whose angular size is independent of the depth of the swimmer
2) shining surface of the water
3) Just darkness
4) A bright patch directly above whose angular size depends upon the depth of the swimmer.

33. The cause of a mirage is one of the following

1) The refractive index of atmosphere decreases with height
2) The hot ground reflects light
3) Hot air oscillates continuously
4) The refractive index of atmosphere increases with height

34. Speed of light in air, water and glass has the value Ca, Cw and CG respectively. Which of the following relations is true?

1) Cw = Cg= Ca
2) Cw > Cg and Cw < Ca
3) Cw = Cg and Cw Cw and Cw < Cg

35. The largest angle of minimum deviation occurs when light of one of the following colours passes through a prism

1) Indigo
2) Green
3) Red
4) Yellow

36. A wire of circular cross-section of diameter 0.08 mm. is made of a material whose specific resistance is 16 micro ohm-cm. If the resistance of the wire is 21 ohms, its length is

1) 66 cm
2) 53 cm
3) 72 cm
4) 6.8 cm

37. Consider 5 branches of 10 identical cells connected in series, the e.m.f. and the internal resistance of each cell being 1.5 volts and 1 ohm respectively. If the group of cells sends a current through an external resistance of 20 ohms, then the value of this current is (in amperes)

1) 0.25
2) 0.14
3) 0.68
4) 0.75

38. The decay constant of radium is 1.21 x 10-9sec-1. Its half-life in seconds is equal to

1) 9.09 x 108
2) 5.7 x 108
3) 3.6 x 108
4) 2.4 x 109

39. The difference between the total mass of two neutrons and two protons and the mass of a helium nucleus is 0.031 a.m.u. If this mass is completely converted into energy, it will be equivalent to (assume 1 a.m.u. =1.6 x 10-27 kg)

1) 4.46 x 10-12 Joules
2) 15.3 x 10-11 Joules
3) 9 x 1013 Joules
4) 2.7 x 1012 Joules

40. Band spectra are produced by

1) Electrons
2) Atomic nuclei
3) Hot material
4) Molecules

41. Two positive charges are placed with a fixed separation. A slab of dielectric medium is introduced between them. As a result, the repulsion between the two charges

1) Changes to attraction
2) Remains constant
3) Decreases
4) Increases

42. According to one of Kirchhgoff’s laws of steady currents, the sum of the products of the current and resistance taken round any closed path is equal to

1) The total charge residing in the path
2) The total magnetic induction associated with that path
3) The total capacitance of that path
4) The total e.m.f. acting in that path

43. The average life of a radioactive element is

1) Less than its half-life
2) Equal to its half-life
3) Greater than its half-life
4) Independent of its half-life

44. A deuterium nucleus and a helium nucleus are placed in the same electric field. The acceleration of helium is

1) Greater than that of deuterium
2) Less than that of deuterium
3) Equal to that of deuterium
4) Zero

45. Which of the following properties is true in the case of helium?

1) It is radioactive
2) It is very stable
3) It is fissionable
4) It changes into hydrogen

46. Photoelectrons are being emitted under the action of light. Suppose the frequency of the light is halved and its intensity doubled. Then the speed of the electrons will

1) Decrease
2) Increase
3) Stay unaltered
4) Depend on the ratio of frequency to intensity

47. An alternating current can be rectified by using a

1) Cathode ray tube
2) Tesla coil
3) Transformer
4) Diode

48. A beam of parallel rays is bought to focus by a plano-convex lens. A thin concave lens of same focal length is joined to the first lens. The effect of this is

1) The focal point shifts away from the lens by a small distance
2) The focus shifts to infinity
3) The focus remains undisturbed
4) The focus moves sidewards

49. If the speed of the light and the polarising angle for a given medium are Cm and i respectively, then from Brewster’s law we find

1) Cm = cosec i
2) Cm = cosh i
3) Cm= cos i
4) Cm= c x cot i

50. In a Nicol prism, the extraordinary ray

1) Passes straight through
2) Undergoes total internal reflection
3) Is bent twice as much as much as the ordinary ray
4) Is at right angles to the ordinary ray

51. The speed of light in two media has the values c1 and c2 respectively. A ray of light passes from the first to the second with the angles of incidence Ѳ1 and refraction Ѳ2.Then these quantities are related by the equation

1) c1 tan Ѳ1 = c2 tan Ѳ2
2) c1 cosec Ѳ1 = c2 cosec Ѳ2
3) c1 sin Ѳ1 = c2 sin Ѳ2
4) c1 cos Ѳ1 = c2 cos Ѳ2

52. Two conductors of capacities 3 and 5 units are charged until their potentials are 5 and 7 units respectively. If the two conductors are now connected by a wire, their common potential will be (in the same system of units as above)

1) 5.26
3) 7.34
4) 9.52

53. At the corners of a square o a side 2sqrt2 cm, charges 1.5, -2.7, 3.4 and -4.1 e.s.u. are placed. The electric potential at the center of the square is given by (in e.s.u.)

1) -1.9
2) 3.8
3) -0.95
4) 1.34

54. Inside a hollow charged spherical conductor, the electric field is found to be

1) Zero
2) A function of the area of the sphere
3) Proportional to the distance from the centre
4) A function of the charge density on the sphere

55. If the separation between the charged plates of a parallel plate condenser is increased, then

1) The total charge is decreased
2) The capacitance is increased
3) The potential difference is increased
4) The total charge is increased

56. Consider the electric potential due to a change q at a distance r. The potential due to
eight times this charge at four times the above distance is

1) Half the original potential
2) Twice the original potential
3) The same as the original potential
4) Four times the original potential

57. The accumulation of charge on clouds, which produces lightning, is caused by

1) Rain drops changing into electrons
2) The electric field of the earth
3) Ionization by the sun
4) Electrification due to motion of water molecules

58. State which of the following statements is true:

1) The number of times electric lines of force cross depends on the charge distribution.
2) No two lines of force can intersect each other
3) Two lines of force intersect each other at least once
4) Lines of force in a dielectric medium can intersect each other

59. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of wave is inclined to the magnetic and electric fields by

1) 450 and 450
2) 450and 900
3) 900and 900
4) 900and 450

60. When an electron is placed in a magnetic field then the velocity of electron

1) Increases
2) Depends on strength of field
3) Decreases
4) Is independent of field strength


Click to download:-

Common Entrance Test Sample Papers PDF

Users can give their suggestions in comment section so as to improve the article “Common Entrance Test Sample papers”

Submit Coaching Center Details Free

If you want to advertise call:01143560050

Institution Name (required)
Address (required)
Contact Person (required)
Email (required)
Contact Number (required)
Additional Details(Courses/Subjects)
Fill the answer

Related Posts

One Response to Common Entrance Test Sample Papers

  1. This is a Common Entrance Test Sample papers along with answers for each question ….check out this article its really useful for enhancing knowledge…..

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

« »

Read previous post:

Institute of Rural Management Anand Sample Question Paper for The Written Examination Time Allowed 2 Hours 10 Minutes Test 1...