National Institute of Fashion Technology is abbreviated as NIFT, which is one of the most famous fashion Institute in India. To get admission in this Institute is like a dream come for those who are interesting in making their career in Fashion designing. NIFT conduct entrance exam every year for the admission in various courses. Following Sample Paper for NIFT Entrance Exam will help you to perform better in the exam. Its a 2 hour exam and each question carries 2 marks. Questions are framed in such a way so as to test the analytical skills & knowledge of Business domain of a applicant. There will be GAT (General Ability Test) which consists of various sub-tests and CAT (Creative Ability Test), Situation Test. Here given few sample questions. You can download the full question paper pdf link given
Sample Paper For NIFT Entrance Exam
Time allowed: 2 hours
This GAT comprises the following sub-tests:
(1) Quantitative Ability
(2) Communication Ability
(3) English Comprehension
(4) Analytical Ability
(5) Business Domain Test
6) Thematic Appreciation Test
Note: (i) Each Question carries 1 mark.
(ii) For each question,four alternatives are given out of which only one is correct.
GAT Sample questions:-
1. In a certain examination there are three papers and it is necessary for a candidate to get 36% of the total marks to pass. In one paper a candidate obtained 62 out of 120 and in the second paper he obtained 35 out of 150. To just qualify for pass he must obtain out of 180 in the 3rd
2. A book-seller allows a discount of 10% on the advertised price of a book. A book costs Rs 600 and he wants to make a profit of 20%. He must mark the price of the book as:
(a) Rs 700
(b) Rs 800
(c) Rs 660
(d) Rs 720
3. A pot full of water weighs 9.5 kg. When half-filled with water the pot weighs 5.5 kg. The weight of the empty pot is (in kg):
4. A shopkeeper bought pens at the rate of 12 pens for Rs 150 and sold them at the rate of 10pens for Rs 130. The number of pens he should sell to earn a net profit of Rs 20 is:
5. A train passes a platform 90 metres long in 30 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 15 seconds. The speed of the train is (in m/sec):
6. Five numbers are arranged in order. The average of the first four numbers is 26 and the average of the last four numbers is 23. The difference of the first and the last number is:
7. 20 men working 8 hours per day can complete a piece of work in 21 days. The number of hours per day must 48 men work to complete the same job in 7 days is:
(a) 10 hrs
(b) 8 hrs
(d) 6 hrs
8. A number of boys raised Rs 180.50 by subscription among themselves, each boy subscribing as many 25 pieces at twice the number of boys. The number of boys is:
9. Of the four numbers p, q, r, s, the ratio of the first number to the second is 2: 3, that of the second to the third is 5: 6 and that of the third to the fourth is 8: 9. The continued ratio of the four numbers is:
(a) 40 : 60 : 72 : 81
(b) 4 : 6 : 7 : 8
(c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(d) 42 : 65 : 70 : 91
10. A fort has provisions for 420 soldiers for 70 days. After 10 days 210 more soldiers enter the fort. The remaining food will last for:
(a) 30 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 35 days
(d) 40 days
11. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. Both the pipes being opened, when the cistern is empty. The time when the first pipe must be turned off so that the cistern may be filled in 18 minutes, in all is:
(a) After 10 min
(b) After 6 min
(c) After 8 min
(d) After 12 min
12. The time taken to travel from one place to another at the rate of 3 km/hr is 1 hour less than that taken to travel same distance at the rate of 2.5 km/hr. the distance between the places is:
(a) 14 km
(b) 16 km
(c) 15 km
(d) 20 km
13. 20 men working 8 hrs a day can complete a work in 18 days. Then 16 men working 9 hrs a day can complete it in:
(a) 20 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 16 days
14. The population of a town was 2, 00000. If the number of males increased by 10% and the number of females decreased by 6%, the total population would have remained unchanged. The number of males is:
15. If oranges be bought at the rate of 20 for a rupee, the number of oranges which must be sold for a rupee to gain 25% is:
16. A person had deposited Rs 2500 in a bank on Ist January and withdrew Rs 1000 from the bank at the end of 9 months. If the rate of interest is 4% p.a., then the total interest payable to him at the end of the year is:
(a) Rs 80
(b) Rs 84
(c) Rs 105
(d) Rs 90
17. A certain sum is invested at simple interest p.a. It amounts to Rs 520 and Rs 568 after 5 and 7 years respectively. The original sum is:
(a) Rs 400
(b) Rs 350
(c) Rs 360
(d) Rs 380
18. A vessel has 2 pipes attached to it, one to supply and one to draw off. The supply-pipe can fill the vessel in 40 minutes, and the waste-pipe can empty it in an hour. The supply-pipe and the waste-pipe are kept open in alternate minutes; time in which the vessel will be filled is:
(a) 3 hrs 55 min
(b) 4 hr
(c) 3 hr 50 min
(d) 3 hr 45 min
19. A man swimming in a stream which flows 1.5 km per hour finds that in a given time he can swim twice as far with the stream as he can against it. The rate at which he swims is:
(a) 4.5 km per hour
(b) 4 km per hour
(c) 3 km per hour
(d) 3.5 km per hour
20. In a kilometer race, A gives B a start of 30 metres, and beats him by 20 metres. If A runs the kilometre in 5 minutes, the time that B will take to run the same distance is:
(a) 5, 5/19 min
(b) 5, 5/17 min
(c) 5, 5/13 min
(d) 5, 5/18 min
21. When flour is Rs 40 a quintal, 16 men can be fed for 5 days at a cost of Rs 32; the time for which 12 men can be fed at a cost of Rs 42, when flour is Rs 35 a quintal is:
(a) 12 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 10 days
22. Rs 873 is divided among A, B, C, so that their shares are in the proportion of 2, 3 and 4, A’s share is:
(a) Rs 194
(b) Rs 291
(c) Rs 388
(d) Rs 210
23. 42 Litres of adulterated milk contain milk and water in the ratio 4: 3. The amount of water which must be added to it in order that the resulting mixture may contain milk and water in the ratio 4: 5 is:
(a) 15 litres
(b) 10 litres
(c) 12 litres
(d) 8 litres
24. A shop-keeper sells onions at Rs 24, Rs 30 and Rs 42 a kilogram, selling the different kinds in quantities proportional to 1: 1: 3. If the total quantity sold be 60 kg, the average price
obtained for each kg is:
(a) Rs 36
(b) Rs 38
(c) Rs 30
(d) Rs 32
25. A piece of cloth is sold for Rs. 85.80 at a profit of 30%. If it had been sold at Rs 7.50 per metre, the profit would have been Rs 16.50. the length of the piece is:
(a) 11 metres
(b) 9 metres
(c) 12 metres
(d) 10 metres
Qs. 26-28. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answers the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
(1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. How many sisters does P have?
I. T & V are only sisters of D.
II. D is brother of P.
27. How is ‘over’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Over and again’ written as ‘Ka ja ha’ in that code language.
II. ‘Come and go’ is written as ‘ja pa na’ in that code language.
28. Who is to the immediate right of Mohan when Mohan, Salil, Bhushan, Suresh and jayesh are
sitting around a circle facing at the centre?
I. Salil is third to the left of Mohan.
II. Bhushan is between Salil and Jayesh.
Qs. 29-33. In each of the questions below there are three statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
29. STATEMENTS: 1. All dogs are birds
2. Some birds are trees.
3. No house is tree
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some houses are dogs. II. Some birds are dogs. III. Some trees are dogs.
(1) Only I follows.
(2) Only III follows.
(3) Only II follows.
(4) Only II and III follows.
(5) None of these.
30. STATEMENTS: 1. All goats are tigers.
2. Some tigers are horses.
3. All horses are jackals.
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some jackals are tigers. II. Some jackals are goats.
III. Some horses are goats.
(1) None follows.
(2) Only I follows.
(3) Only I & II follow.
(4) Only II and III follow.
(5) All follow.
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