Sample Paper of AIPMT Prelims exam
The AIPMT (All India Pre Medical Test)Prelims exam is a national level entrance exam conducted by Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), Delhi. This exam is conducted for students to get admission to MBBS and BDS courses in most of the medical colleges across the country. Students appearing for this exam are tested on the subjects- Physics, Chemistry, and Biology.
This exam consists of two level. One is Preliminary conducted usually on 1st Sunday of the April month and the second is Mains conducted in the month of May.
All the students who want to take admission to MBBS & BDS courses they have to do hard work for the entrance exam AIPMT. The best score in the exam provides them a good medical college.
AIPMT entrance exam
Sample Paper of AIPMT Prelims exam
BIOLOGY:
1.Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a) morchella and mushrooms
b) bird’s nest fungi and puf balls
c) puffballs and claviceps
d) peziza and stink horns
2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a) calcium and phosphorous
b) phosphorus and sulphur
c) sulphur and magnesium
d) magnesium and sodium
3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c) Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
4. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
a) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
5. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c)a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d) an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
6. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a) peristome teeth
b) elaters
c) indusium
d) calyptras
7. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a) Ovoparity
b) Homoiothermy
c) Toothless jaws
d) Functional post -anal tail
8. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a) They all belong to the same phylum
b) They all have jointed paired appendages
c) They all possess dorsal heart
d) None of them is aquatic
9. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a) central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c) phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
d) testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
10.The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
a) Quinone
b) Cytochrome
c) Iron-sulphur protein
d) Ferredoxin.
11. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a) succinate dehydrogenase
b) lactate dehydrogenase
c) isocitrate dehydrogenase
d) malate dehydrogenase
12. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
a) floral characters
b) evolutionary relationships
c) morphological features
d) chemical constituents
13. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
a) Sponges
b) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
c) Aschelminthes (round worms)
d) Ctenophores
14.Peripatus is a connecting link between
a) Coelenterata and Porifera
b) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
c) Mollusca and Echinodermata
d) Annelida and Arthropoda
15.Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
a) Guppies and hag fishes
b) Lampreys and eels
c) Mackerals and Rohu
d) Lampreys and hag fishes
16. Transgenic plants are the ones
a) Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field
b) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
d) Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
17. What is true about Bt toxin?
a) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
b) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut
c) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
d) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication
18. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by
a) Enzyme replacement therapy
b) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
c) Administering adenosine deaminase activators
d) Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
19. There is no DNA in
a) Hair root
b) An enucleated ovum
c) Mature RBCs
d) A mature spermatozoan
20. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a) Autonomic movement of growth
b) Autonomic movement of locomotion
c) Autonomic movement of variation
d) Paratonic movement of growth.
21. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a) IAA – Cell wall elongation
b) Abscissic Acid – Stomatal closure
c) Gibberellic Acid – Leaf fall
d) Cytokinin – Cell division
22. One gene – one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a) Diploccus pneumonia
b) Neurospora crassa
c) Salmonella typhimurium
d) Escherichia Coli
23. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a)less urea in his urine
b) more sodium in his urine
c) less amino acids in his urine
d)more glucose in his blood.
24. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?
a) Nucleus and mitochondria
b) Perikaryon and dendrites
c) Vacuoles and fibers
d) Flagellum and medullary sheath
25. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a) Vitelline membrane
b) Graafian follicle
c) Stroma
d) Germinal epithelium
26.Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
a) Calciferol – Pellagra
b)Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c)Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d)Cobalamine – Beriberi
27. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Unstriated muscle cells
d) Liver cells
28. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a) lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b) higher levels of thyroxin
c) higher levels of cortisone
d) lower levels of blood testosterone
29. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a) FSH only
b) LH only
c) Combination of FSH and LH
d) Combination of estrogen and progesterone
30.Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
a) Temperate deciduous forest
b) Tropical rain forest
c) Tropical deciduous forest
d) Temperate evergreen forest
31. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
a) Pongamia
b) Euphorbia
c) Beetroot
d) Sugarcane
32. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of:
a) CO
b) SO2
c) NOX
d) SPM
33. Which one of the following is not a bio indicator of water pollution?
a) Sewage fungus
b) Sludge-worms
c) Blood-worms
d) Stone flies
34. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a) Predation on one another
b) Mutualism
c) Intra specific competition
d) Inter specific competition
35. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a) Ecosystem
b) Biotic community
c) Population
d) Landscape
36. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
a) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
37. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a) Nepenthes
b) Podophyllum
c) Ocimum
d) Garlic
38. One of the synthetic auxin is :
a) IBA
b) NAA
c) IAA
d) GA
39. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?
a) Abscisic acid
b) Indole butyric acid
c) Indole-3-acetic acid
d) Gibberellic acid
40. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by
a) Sucker
b) Runner
c) Offset
d) Rhizome
41.The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a) Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b) Deletion of non-essential genes.
c) Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d) DNAse digestion.
42. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a) from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b) the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
c) in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d) in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media.
43. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
c) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
d) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
44. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Ciliated epithelium
c) Thrombocytes
d) Tendon
45. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
a) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b) Blood plasma
c) Blood serum
d) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
46. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
a) Gastrin
b) Thyroxin
c) Adrenaline
d)Glucagon
47.What is common to whale,seal and shark?
a) Homoithermy
b)seasonal migration
c)thick subcutaneous fat
d)convergent evolution
48. . During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a) First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b) First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive
49. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?
a) S < DE < PE < SE
b) SE < S < PE < DE
c) SE < PE < S < DE
d) PE < S < SE < D
50.Keel is characteristics of the flowers of-
a) calotropis
b) bean
c)gulmohar
d) cassia
CHEMISTRY:
1. Identify the correct order of the size of the following:
a) Ca2+<Ar<K+<Cl–<S2-
b) Ca2+<K+<Ar<S2-<Cl–
c) Ca2+<K+<Ar<Cl–<S2-
d) Ar<Ca2+<K+<Cl–<S2
2. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural?
a) BrO3– and XeO3
b) SF4 and XeF4
c) SO3 and NO3
d) BF3 and NF3
3.The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between-
a) n = 4 to n = 3 states
b) n = 3 to n = 2 states
c) n = 3 to n = 1 states
d) n = 2 to n = 1 states
4. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately:
a) 40 minutes
b) 50 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 60 minutes
5. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 g. mL-1 . Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 is-
a) 5.55 mL
b) 11.10 mL
c) 16.65 mL
d)22.20 mL
6. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is:
a) 1
b) 3/5
c) 4/5
d) 2/5
7. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption-
a) The adsorbed molecules interact with each other
b) The adsorption takes place in multilayers
c) The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
d) The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
8. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following:
a) Benzene
b) Toluene
c )Chlorobenzene
d) Phenol
1) d > b > a > c
2) a > b > c > d
3) b > d > a > c
4) d > c > b > a
9. Which of the compounds with molecular formulaC5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis?
a) 2 – Methyl – 1 – butene
b) 2 – Methyl – 2 – butane
c) 3 – Methyl – 1 – butane
d) Cyclopentane
10. If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent, thought to be chiral, it may mean that
a) the compound may be a racemic mixture
b) the compound is certainly a chiral
c) the compound is certainly meso
d) there is no compound in the solvent
11. For the following
I– , Cl–, Br–
the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be:
a) Br–<Cl–<I–
b) I–<Br–<Cl–
c) Cl–<Br–<I–
d) I–<Cl–<Br–
12 . Which one of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K
13. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
a) D – sugar component
b) L – sugar component
c) Chiral bases
d) Chiral phosphate ester units
14. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?
a) Styrene
b) Nylon – 66
c) Teflon
d)Rubber
15. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
a) SrSO4
b) BaSO4
c) MgSO4
d)RaSO4
16. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?
a) + 2, + 2
b) + 4, + 2
c) + 2, + 4
d) + 4, + 4
17. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
b) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
c) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
d) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements
18. Sulphides ores of metals are usually concentrated by Froth Flotation process. Which one of the following sulphides ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching?
a) Sphalerite
b) Argentite
c) Galena
d) Copper pyrite
19. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
a) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
b) a beta-hydroxy acid
c) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
d) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
20. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc.HCl is called
a) Wolf-Kishner Reduction
b) Clemmensen Reduction
c) Cope Reduction
d) Dow Reduction
21. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?
a) Methyl Cyanide
b) Nitroethane
c) Methylisocyanide
d) Acetamide
22 .How many moles of lead(II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g of HCl?
a) 0.029
b) 0.044
c) 0.333
d) 0.011
23.The correct order of decreasing ionization enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(23), Mn(25) is-
a) Ti>V>Cr>Mn
b) Cr>Mn>V>Ti
c) V>Mn>Cr>Ti
d) Mn>Cr>Ti>V
24.The angular shape of O3 consists of-
a) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds
b) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
c) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
d) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
25.The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is-
a) NO2+<NO2–<NO2
b) NO2–<NO2+<NO2
c) NO2–<NO2<NO2+
d) NO2+<NO2<NO2–
PHYSICS:
1. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
a) in phase and perpendicular to each other
b) in phase and parallel to each other
c) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
d) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
2. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charge-particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed V. The time period of the motion
a) depends on R and not on V
b) depends on V and not on R
c) depends on both R and V
d) is independent of both R and V
3. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move
a) along a straight line
b) in an elliptical orbit
c) in a circular orbit
d) along a parabolic path
4. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature then it will show
a) diamagnetism
b) paramagnetism
c) anti ferromagnetism
d) no magnetic property
5. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 90%
6. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc , then the physical quantity will be
a) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
b) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
c) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1
d) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2
7. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in first10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then
a) S2 = S1
b) S2 = 2S1
c)S2 = 3S1
d) S2=4S1
8. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms-1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?
a) 10 ms-1
b) 20 ms-1
c) 40 ms-1
d) 25 ms-1
9. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is
a) 14 ms-2 upwards
b) 30 ms-2 downwards
c) 4 ms-2 upwards
d) 4 ms-2 downwards
10. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms-1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms-1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms-1, its mass would be
a) 3 kg
b) 5 kg
c) 7 kg
d) 17 kg
11. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be
a) Mg/2k
b) Mg/k
c) 2Mg/k
d) 4Mg/k
12. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction?(g=10m/s2)
a) 10 J
b) 20 J
c) 30 J
d) 40 J
13. In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?
a) In an adiabatic process PV= constant
b) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings
c) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
d) In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
14. .A black body at 227ºC radiates heat at the rate of 7cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727ºC, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be
a) 80
b) 60
c) 50
d) 112
15. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is
a) 7900 J
b) 8900 J
c) 6400 J
d) 5400 J
16. The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is
a) 500 Hz
b) 550 Hz
c) 555.5 Hz
d) 720 Hz
17. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the +ve direction of x axis with a speed of 128 m/s and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is
a) y = (0.02) m sin(7.85x – 1005t)
b) y = (0.02) m sin(7.85x + 1005t)
c) y = (0.02) m sin(15.7x – 2010t)
d) y = (0.02) m sin(15.7x+ 2010t)
18. Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
19. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is-
a) Attracted by both the poles
b) Repelled by both the poles
c) Repelled by the North Pole and attracted by the South Pole
d) Attracted by the North Pole and repelled by the South Pole
20. The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an
a) Isotope of parent
b) Isobar of parent
c) Isomer of parent
d) Isotone of parent
21. A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration of Vc = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100 A to 200 A produces a change in the collector current from 5mA to 10 mA. The current gain is
a) 50
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150
22. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be-
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 8%
23.A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10m/s to 20m/s while passing through a distance 135m in t seconds. The value of t is-
a) 9
b) 10
c) 1.8
d) 12
24. A shell of mass 200gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05KJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is-
a) 120m/s
b) 100m/s
c)80m/s
d) 40m/s
25. Curie temperature is the temperature above which-
a) Ferromagnetic material becomes Diamagnetic material
b) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
c) Paramagnetic material becomes Ferromagnetic material
d) Ferromagnetic material becomes Paramagnetic material
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