Sample Paper for SSC exam

Sample Paper for SSC exam with question and answers

Jul 3 • Competition Sample Papers • 50367 Views • 28 Comments on Sample Paper for SSC exam with question and answers

For recruitment of Section Officer, Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducts a competitive exam.Many candidates who wish to become section officer appear this exam. Exam pattern is as follows for graduate level- Written exam is of 200 marks and duration is 2 hours and questions are asked from section like- General Intelligence and Reasoning, general awareness, numerical aptitude and English comprehension.Now main written test is of 200 marks and duration is 2 hours and questions asked from sections like-arithmetical ability, English language & comprehension and commerce/statistics/economics/mathematics then an interview test

You can also take an online test on SSC to test your knowledge which will help you to prepare well for the exam.

Sample Paper for SSC exam

Sample paper for SSC

Here we have got some questions for your practice after doing a lot of research. You must go this sample paper for SSC Exam preparation.

Sample Paper for SSC Exam

General Intelligence and Reasoning

Each question below has two statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements:

1.      Statement One: All girls are students.
Statement Two: All doctors are students.
Conclusions:
I. All girls are students.
II. Some students are girls.
III. Some students are doctors.
IV. All doctors are girls.

a.     Only I follows.
b.     Only I and II follows.
c.     Only II and IV follow.
d.     Only I and II and III follows.

2.       Statement One: All researchers are sociologists
Statement Two: Some researchers are professors.
Conclusions:
I. All researchers are professors.
II. Some researchers are professors.
III. Some professors are sociologists.
IV. Some sociologists are researchers.

a.     Only III and II follow.
b.     Only II and IV follow.
c.     Only III follows.
d.     None follows.

3.       Statement One: Some democracies are dictatorship.
 Statement Two: No dictatorship is a monarchy.
Conclusions:
I. No democracy is a monarchy.
II. No dictatorship is a democracy.
III. Some democracies are monarchy.
IV. Some dictatorships are democracies.

a.     None follows
b.     Only IV follows.
c.     II and III follow.
d.     I and IV follow.

Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false.

4.      Statements:
I. Cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol.

II. Sumeet does not eat cheese.
Assuming that (i) and (ii) are true, which of the following statement follows?

a.     Sumeet has high-cholesterol.
b.     Cheese is bad for Sumeet.
c.     People with high-Cholesterol do not eat cheese.
d.     None of the above.

5.      Statement:
I. Democrats are secularists.
Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

a.     My father is a secularist but he is not a democrat.
b.     My father is a democrat but he is not secularist.
c.     My father is a democrat and he is secularist.
d.     My father is neither a democrat nor a secularist.

6.      Statement: “Where there is a cloud, there is a rain.” Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

a.     Sometimes there is cloud, but there is no rain.
b.     Sometimes there is rain, but there is no cloud.
c.     There is no rain where there is no cloud.
d.     None of the above.

Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions.

Four friends W, X, Y and Z are students of Class 10th. W and X are good in Hindi but poor in English. W and Y are good in Science but poor in Mathematics. Y and Z are good in English but poor in Social Studies. Z and X are good in Mathematics as well as in Science.

7.      Who amongst the following friends is not good in Mathematics but good in Hindi?

a.     W
b.     Y
c.     X
d.     Z

In the following questions select the related letter / word / number from the given alternatives

8.       Petrology : Rocks : : Palaentology : ?

a.       Birds
b.      Animals
c.       Fossils
d.      Soil

9.       If 264 * 2 = 6, 870 * 3 = 11, then what should 735 * 5 be?

a.       16
b.      03
c.       05
d.      12

10.   EGIK : FILO : : FHJL : ?

a.       JGMP
b.      JGPM
c.       GJPM
d.      GJMP

11.   Which one of the set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letters shall complete it?
_ _ b a a b a a _ a a _

a.       b b a a
b.      b a a b
c.       a a b b
d.      a b a b

12.   A + B + Y + Z = 54
C + D + W + X = ?

a.       45
b.      54
c.       56
d.      52

13.   10 : 91 : : 9 : ?

a.       69
b.      72
c.       89
d.      97

14.   Square : Cube : : Circle : ?

a.       Ellipse
b.      Parabola
c.       Cone
d.      Sphere

15.   Tanning : Leather : : Pyrotechnics : ?

a.       Fireworks
b.      Wool
c.       Machinery
d.      Bombs

16.   F : 216 : : L : ?

a.       1700
b.      1600
c.       1723
d.      1728

17.   If RUMOUR can be written as QSJKPL, then how HERMIT can be written as?

a.       GEPKHR
b.      GCOIDN
c.       GCPIDM
d.      GCPIEN

In the following question, a series is given with a term missing. Choose the correct term from the given alternatives

18.   5, 16, 51, 158, ?

a.      483
b.      481
c.      1454
d.      1452

19.
4     9              2
3     5              7
8     1              ?

a.     9
b.     6
c.     15
d.     14

20.
251                (12)        107
381                 (?)          125

a.       14
b.      24
c.       11
d.      16

21.   BCFG, JKNO, RSVW, ?

a.       ZADE
b.      HIKL
c.       STUX
d.      MNPQ

22.   C – 3, E – 5, G – 7, I – 9, ?, ?

a.       K – 11, M – 13
b.      O – 15, X – 24
c.       M – 18, K – 14
d.      X – 24, M – 21

23.   If + means /, – means x, x means + and / means -, then
90 + 18 – 6 x 30 / 4 = ?

a.       64
b.      65
c.       56
d.       48

24.   Five coaches P L R M O are in a row. R is to the right of M and left of P. L is to the right of P and left of D. Which coach is in the middle?

a.       P
b.      L
c.       R
d.      O

25.   Priya starts walking in the afternoon facing the Sun. After some time she turned right. Later again she turned left. At what direction is Priya moving?

a.       East
b.      West
c.       North
d.      South

26.   If the first and second letters in the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth, and so on. Then which letter would be present in the tenth position from the right?

a.       A
b.      T
c.       N
d.      U

27.   If each of the letters in English alphabet is assigned an even numerical value by giving A = 2, B = 4, and so on. What would be the total value of the letters for the word LADY when similarly coded?

a.       72
b.      84
c.       82
d.      74

In the following questions, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word

28.   MANUSCRIPT

a.       SMART
b.      RUSTIC
c.       MASTER
d.      PRIMUS

29.   RESEARCH

a.       SEARCH
b.      REACH
c.       HEAR
d.      READ

30.   CONTENTION

a.       TONIC
b.      NOTE
c.       NATION
d.      NOTION

31.   INVESTIGATION

a.       INSTIGATION
b.      GESTATION
c.       VEST
d.      STIGMA

32.   SEGREGATION

a.       GREAT
b.      GREETINGS
c.       SEATING
d.      NATION

In the following questions, find the odd number / letter / number pair from the given alternatives

33.  

a.       Konark
b.      Madurai
c.       Dilwara
d.      Ellora

34.  

a.       24
b.      49
c.       80
d.      15

35.    

a.       Pathology
b.      Geology
c.       Cardiology
d.      Radiology

36.    

a.       704, 11
b.      256, 4
c.       832, 13
d.      310, 5

37.    

a.       FAA
b.      OFF
c.       ATT
d.      EPP

38.    

a.       Radio
b.      Television
c.       Transistor
d.      Tube

39.    

a.       Fervent
b.      Enthusiastic
c.       Apathetic
d.      Ardent

40.    

a.       117 – 143
b.      142 – 156
c.       64 – 78
d.      103 – 169

41.  

a.       DH
b.      FJ
c.       HK
d.      PR

42.  

a.       Rivulet
b.      Stream
c.       River
d.      Pond

43. 

a. Fast-Slow
b. Bright-Dark
c. Day-Night
d. Valley-Depth

44. 

a. Body-Hand
b. Foot-Ankle
c. Eye-Ear
d. Wrist-Finger

45. 

a. Snake-Frog
b. Goat-Hen
c. Dog-Cat
d. Tiger-Deer

Choose the picture that would go in the empty box so that the two bottom pictures are related in the same way as the top two are related.

46. 

Sample Paper for SSC exam

47. 

Sample Paper for SSC exam

48. 

Sample Paper for SSC exam

49.  Which of the following patterns fold form the given cube?

Sample Paper for SSC exam

50.  Which figure completes the statement?

Sample Paper for SSC exam

GENERAL AWARENESS
51.   If a person weighs 100kg on earth then his weight on moon will be ____

a. 12.5 kg
b. 16.6 kg
c. 20.5 kg
d. 25.5 kg

52.  Which animal is NOT a part of the National emblem of India?

a. Lion
b. Horse
c. Bull
d. Camel

53.  Name the first woman deputy governor of Reserve Bank of India.

a. Chokila Aiyar
b. KJ Udeshi
c. Kanchan Choudhary
d. Neera Yadav

54.   This great personality is also known as the ‘Man of Destiny’. Identify him from the given options.

a. Adolf Hitler
b. Napoleon Bonaparte
c. George Washington
d. Joseph Stalin

55.  International Court of Justice is headquartered at____

a. Paris
b. The Hague
c. Vienna
d. New York

56.  Public Sector means-

a. Government ownership on commerce and trade
b. Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
c. Private ownership on trade
d. None of these

57.  The largest source of national Income in India is

a. Service Sector
b. Agriculture
c. Industrial Sector
d. Trade Sector

58.  Beri -Beri disease is caused by the deficiency of :

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

59.  The first Governor General of free India was :

a. C. Rajgopalachari
b. Lord Mountbatten
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. Dr. BR Ambedkar

60.  What is the length of nationalized metal road in U.P.?

a. 15,000 km
b. 22,000 km
c. 24,000 km
d. 26,000 km

61.  Who is the first British Author to win the Man Booker Prize for fiction twice?

a. Peter Carey
b. J. M. Coetzee
c. Hillary Mantel
d. None of the above

62.  Under the Article of Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed forces be specifically restricted?

a. Article 21
b. Article 25
c. Article 33
d. Article 19

63.  A Retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in

a. Supreme Court
b. Any Court in India
c. High Courts
d. Except the High Court where he retired

64.  Grits of sewage are removed in

a. Grit Chamber
b. Detritus Tank
c. Skimming Tank
d. Trickling Filter

65.  The demand for labour is called

a. Derived Demand
b. Factory Demand
c. Market Demand
d. Direct Demand

66.  Which one of the following is an example of non – economic good?

a. Doctor’s service
b. Teacher’s service
c. Mother’s service
d. Banker’s service

67.  Who won the Women Australian Open Singles Title 2013?

a. Serena Williams
b. Victoria Azarenka
c. Li Na
d. Maria Sharapova

68.  Forced Savings refer to

a. Compulsory deposits imposed on income tax payers
b. Provident fund contribution of private sector employees
c. Reduction of consumption consequent to a rise in prices
d. Taxes on individual income and wealth

69.  The national income of a nation is the

a. Government’s annual revenue
b. Sum total of factor incomes
c. Surplus of public sector enterprises
d. Exports minus imports

70.  Who was the first recipient of the “Bharat Ratna” Award posthumously?

a. K. Kamaraj
b. Lal Bahadur Shastri
c. M. G. Ramachandran
d. B. R. Ambedkar

71.  Apatanis are the major tribal group of

a. Sikkim
b. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Jharkhand
d. Nagaland

72.  Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?

a. Fixing margin requirements
b. Variable interest rates
c. Open market operations
d. Credit rationing

73.  The founder of Lodhi dynasty was

a. Bahlol Lodhi
b. Sikandar Shah Lodhi
c. Jalal Khan Lodhi
d. Ibrahim Lodhi

74.  The type of tail found in Shark is

a. Heterocercal
b. Diphycercal
c. Protocercal
d. Homocercal

75.  The total pollution divided by available arable land area is referred to as

a. Population density
b. Nutritional density
c. Agricultural density
d. Industrial density

76.  The Earth is at a maximum distance from Sun on

a. January 30th
b. December 22nd
c. September 22nd
d. July 4th

77.  AIDS virus destroys

a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Monocytes

78.  What is the capital of Mali?

a. Mopti
b. Barmako
c. Cairo
d. Nairobi

79.  For which language in the Indian Constitution, the Jnanpith Award has not been given upto 2011?

a. Sanskrit
b. Sindhi
c. Kashmiri
d. Konkani

80.  The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is

a. Declination
b. Latitude
c. Azimuth
d. Dip

81.  High powered money is

a. Banks reserves at Central Bank
b. All loans and advances of Banks
c. Money held by banks
d. Currency held by public and reserves with the Central Bank

82.  “State is a necessary evil” is associated with

a. Individualism
b. Idealism
c. Marxism
d. Constructivism

83.  Who was the President of All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)?

a. C. R. Das
b. V. V. Giri
c. Lala Lajpat Rai
d. Sarojini Naidu

84.  Maps on large scale, representing both natural and man – made features are called

a. Thematic maps
b. Atlas maps
c. Wall maps
d. Topographic maps

85.  Heart is devoid of

a. Cardiac muscle
b. Involuntary muscles
c. Voluntary muscles
d. Smooth muscles

86.  Chickenpox is caused by

a.      DNA virus
b.      Variola virus
c.       Streptococcus
d.      Vibrio cholerea

87.  Sigmoid Colon is a part

a.      Large Intestine
b.      Ileum
c.       Small Intestine
d.      Anal Canal

88.  In nuclear reactions, there is conservation of

a.      Mass only
b.      Momentum only
c.       Energy only
d.      Mass, momentum and energy

89.  Which computer was the first to use the magnetic drum for memory?

a.      IBM – 650
b.      IBM – 7090
c.       IBM – 701
d.      IBM – 360

90.  Silicone is a polymer of

a.      Dialkyl dichloro silane
b.      Silane
c.       Tetraalkyl silane
d.      Silicon tetrachloride

91.  The stability of the pond ecosystem depends on

a.      Micro – organisms and fishes
b.      Micro – organisms and zoo – planktons
c.       Fishes and reptiles
d.      Producers and consumers

92.  Of the following, which is fastest?

a.      CD – ROM
b.      RAM
c.       Registers
d.      Cache

93.  Who is the Chairman of the 20th Law Commission?

a.     Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
b.     Justice D. K. Jain
c.     Justice Usha Mehra
d.     Justice J. S. Verma

94.  The human body’s largest blood vessel is

a. Pulmonary artery
b. Aorta
c. Renal artery
d. Coronary artery

95.  Each segment of earthworm is known as

a. Proglottid
b. Metamere
c. Scolex
d. Rostellum

96.  What is a natural colloid?

a. Cane sugar
b. Blood
c. Sodium chloride
d. Urea

97.  Amides can be converted into amines by the reaction named

a. Perkin
b. Claisen
c. Hoffman
d. Clemmensen

98.  Supersonic airplanes create a shock wave called

a. Transition wave
b. Ultrasound
c. Transverse wave
d. Sonic boom

99.  Which is the first state in India to pass the Food Security Law?

a.      Chattisgarh
b.      Gujarat
c.       Punjab
d.      Kerala

100.         The drainage pattern developed on the folded sedimentary rocks is termed as

a.      Trellis
b.      Dendritic
c.       Radial
d.      Deranged

APTITUDE;-

101.         X is thrice as good a workman as Y and together they finish a piece of work in 21 days. In how many days will X alone finish the work?

a. 29 days
b. 31 days
c. 28 days
d. 27 days

102.         A can do a certain work in 45 days. B is 80% more efficient than A. How many days does B alone take to do the same work?

a. 24 days
b. 23 days
c. 28 days
d. 25 days

103.         A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’ salary for 12 days and B’s salary for 24days. The same money is sufficient to pay the salaries of both for:

a. 8 days
b. 9 days
c. 10 days
d. 12 days

104.         The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 7 and their H.C.F, is 9, then their L.C.M. is

a. 35
b. 315
c. 63
d. 81

105.         If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 50% more than their cost price and allows a discount of 30%. What is his gain or loss percent?

a. Gain of 5%
b. Gain of 10%
c. Gain of 20%
d. Loss of 20%

106.          By selling 12 oranges for 40, a man loses 20%. The number of oranges he has to sell for Rs.100, so as to gain 20% is

a. 12
b. 18
c. 21
d. 24

107.         The true discount on a sum of money during 2 yr hence at 5% is Rs 15. Find the sum.

a. 150
b. 165
c. 170
d. 160

108.         A solid wooden toy is in the shape of a right circular cone mounted on a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is 4.2 cm and the total height of the toy is 10.2 cm, find the volume of the wooden toy (nearly)

a. 104cm3
b. 162 cm3
c. 427 cm3
d. 266 cm3

109.         Both the end digits of a 99 digit number N are 2. N is divisible by 11, then all the middle digits are

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

110.         The ratio of the areas of the incircle and the circumcircle of a square is

a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 3
c. 3 : 4
d. 4 : 5

111.         A, B, P are three points on a circle having centre O. If angle OAP = 25o and angle OBP = 35 o , then the measure of angle AOB is

a. 120 o
b. 60 o
c. 75 o
d. 150 o

112.         The product of two co – prime numbers is 117. Their LCM is

a. 13
b. 39
c. 117
d. 9

113.         What would be the sum of
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + ……

a. 250
b. 240
c. 225
d. 265

114.         If tan a  + cot a = 2, then the value of tan7 a + cot7 a is

a. 2
b. 16
c. 64
d. 128

115.         The prices of a school bag and a shoe are in ratio 7 : 5. The price of a school bag is Rs. 200 more than the price of a shoe. Then the price of the shoe is

a. Rs. 500
b. Rs. 1200
c. Rs. 200
d. Rs. 700

116.         A, B, C subscribe together Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4,000 more than B and B Rs. 5,000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000. A receives

a. Rs. 8,500
b. Rs. 11,998
c. Rs. 12,600
d. Rs. 14,700

117.         A can do a piece of work in 6 days. B can do the same work in 12 days. How long will both of them take to do the same work?

a. 2 days
b. 4 days
c. 6 days
d. 8 days

118.         An article is sold for Rs. 300 at a profit of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 235, the loss percentage would have been

a. 5
b. 6
c. 16
d. 3

119.         The average of five consecutive numbers is n. if the next two numbers are also included, the average of 7 numbers will be

a. Increase by 2
b. Increase by 1
c. Remain the same
d. Increase by 1.4

120.         The biggest possible circle is inscribed in a rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 6 cm. then its area is

a. 3π cm2
b. 4π cm2
c. 5π cm2
d. 9π cm2

121.          The least number which when divided by 48, 64, 90, 120 will leave the remainders 38, 54, 80, 110 respectively is

a. 2870
b. 2860
c. 2890
d. 2880

122.         A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius r and height h. the water is poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius mr. the height of water in the cylindrical flask is

a.  2h/m
b.  h/3m2
c. m/2h
d. hm2/2

123.         From 125m high towers, the angle of depression of a car is 45o. Then how far the car is from the tower?

a. 125 m
b. 60 m
c. 75 m
d. 95 m

124.         The smallest positive integer which when multiplied by 392, gives a perfect square is

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

125.         The average of first five integral multiples of 3 is

a. 15
b. 18
c. 21
d. 12

126.         A metal pipe of negligible thickness has radius 21 cm and length 90 cm. the outer curved surface area of the pipe in square cm is

a.  11880
b.  11680
c.   11480
d.   10080

127.         A batsman makes a score of 58 runs in the 15th innings and thus increases his average by 3 runs. What is the average after 15th innings?

a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18

128.         A and B can together complete a work in 3 days. They start together. But, after 2 days, B left the work. If the work is completed after two more days, B alone can do the work in?

a. 6 days
b. 8 days
c. 10 days
d. 4 days

129.         A shopkeeper marks an article at a price which gives profit of 25%. After allowing a certain discount, the profit reduces to %. The discount percent is

a. 12%
b. 12.5%
c. 10%
d. 20%

130.         A train 100m long moving at a speed of 50km/hr crosses a train 12m long coming from opposite directions in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is?

a. 60 km/hr
b. 82 km/hr
c. 70 km/hr
d. 74 km/hr

131.         A box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls, 50 black balls. 25% of the blue balls and 50% of the red balls are taken away. What % of the black balls is present in the box?

a.  33 1/3 %
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 25%

132.         The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a sum of Rs. 4,000 for 2 years at 5% pa payable yearly is

a. Rs. 20
b. Rs. 10
c. Rs. 50
d. Rs. 60

133.         The radian measure of 63o14’51” is

a.   (2811π/8000)2
b.   (3811π/8000)2
c.   (4811π/8000)2
d.   (5811π/8000)2

134.         An equation of the form ax + by + c = 0 where a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0, c = 0 represents a straight line which passes through

a. (0,0)
b. (3,2)
c. (2,4)
d. None of these

135.         If ‘a’ be a positive number, then the least value of a +  is

a. 1
b. 0
c. 2
d. 1/2

136.         N is the foot of the perpendicular from a point P of a circle of radius 7 cm, on a diameter AB of the circle. If the length of the chord PB is 12 cm, the distance of the point N from the point B is

a. 3 5/7 cm
b. 10 2/7 cm
c.  6 5/7 cm
d. 12 2/7 cm

137.         If a, b, c are real and a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc and a + b + c ≠ 0, then the relation between a, b, c will be

a. a + b = c
b. a + c = b
c. a = b = c
d. b + c = a

138.         With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 0
d. 1

139.         If x2 = y + x, y2 = z + x and z2 = x + y, then the value of  is

a. 2
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1

140.         The sum of the ages of Puneet and his father is 45 years and the product of their ages is 126. What is the age of Puneet?

a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 45 years

6The following histogram shows the average pocket money received by 60 students for a span of one month. Study the diagram and answer the following questions

141.         Maximum number of students received pocket money between

a. 50 – 80
b. 140 – 170
c. 80 – 110
d. 110 – 140

142.         The number of students who received pocket money upto Rs. 140 is

a. 20
b. 32
c. 48
d. 56

7The following graph shows the expenditure incurred in bringing book, by a magazine producer. Study the graph and answer the following questions

143.         What should be the central angle of the sector for the cost of paper?

a. 57.6o
b. 54.5o
c. 56.7o
d. 54.8o

144.         If the miscellaneous charges are Rs. 6,000, the cost of paper is

a. Rs. 12,000
b. Rs. 18,000
c. Rs. 15,000
d. Rs. 24,000

145.         If 5500 copies are published, miscellaneous expenditures amount to Rs. 1,848, find the cost price of 1 copy

a. Rs. 10.40
b. Rs. 9.40
c. Rs. 12.40
d. Rs. 8.40

8The following pie chart represents the profits earned by a certain company in seven consecutive years. Study the pie chart carefully and answer the following questions.

146.         If the expenditure in the year 1993 was 30% more  than the expenditure in the year 1991, then the income in the year 1993 exceeds the income in the year 1991 by 30% of

a. The income in the year 1991
b. The expenditure in the year 1993
c. The income in the year 1993
d. The expenditure in the year 1991

147.         If x% of the total profits earned in all the given years is same as the profit  earned in the year 1994, then x is

a. 16 2/3
b. 33 1/3
c. 12 1/2
d. 11 2/3

148.         The ratios of the expenditures and incomes in the year 1992, 1994 and 1996 are given to be 6 : 5 : 8 and 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. The ratio of the income in the year 1996 to the total expenditure in the years 1992 and 1994 is

a. 40 : 11
b. 10 : 7
c. 20 : 11
d. 20 : 13

149.         The year in which the profit is nearest to the average of the profits earned in all the given years is

a. 1991
b. 1995
c. 1993
d. 1994

150.         If the income in the year 1997 was 5 times the expenditure  made in the same year, then the ratio of the profit earned in the year 1991 to the expenditure in the year 1997 was

a. 11 : 28
b. 44 : 7
c. 28 : 11
d. 7 : 44

GENERAL ENGLISH

In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none, Find out which part of a sentence has an error.

151.        

a.    They agreed
b.    to repair the damage
c.    freely of charge
d.    No error

152.        

a.    The Governing Board
b.    Comprises of
c.    Several distinguished personalities
d.    No error

153.        

a.    Each in the office
b.    Including Rajesh
c.    Knew who had
d.    Made the mistake

154.       

a.    The director, along with all his officers
b.    were welcomed
c.     with due respect
d.    by the union leaders

155.        

a.     We must try
b.     to reach college early
c.     because the students
d.     must waiting for us there

In these questions sentences are given below with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

156.         That hardly counts, _______

a.     does it?
b.    doesn’t it?
c.     do it?
d.     don’t it?

157.         Only people who are afraid to sign their names send _____ letters.

a.     Unanimous
b.     Anonymous
c.     Official
d.     Informal

158.         The Unprecedented economic growth of China has ________ worldwide attention.

a.     attracted
b.     proposed
c.     neither
d.     perceived

159.         Mr. Murugan has been in this college _______ 2010.

a.     For
b.     Since
c.     After
d.     Before

160.          ____________ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them.

a.     Although
b.     However
c.     Because
d.     Despite

In the following questions out of the four alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

161.         Daring

a.     Brilliant
b.     Energetic
c.     Enthusiastic
d.    Courageous

162.         Lackluster

a.     Prosaic
b.     Vibrant
c.     Lively
d.     Spirited

163.         Condone

a.     Forgive
b.     Support
c.     Forget
d.     Defend

164.         Allure

a.      Extol
b.      Excite
c.       Entice
d.      Elicit

165.         Aggravate

a.      Subsidise
b.      Alleviate
c.       Depreciate
d.      Extinguish

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out the part which has error in it.

166.         (A) Mohan’s eyes / (B) reflect a hope / (C) for a better future in Microsoft / (D) No error

167.         (A) Being a holiday / (B) we went out / (C) for a picnic / (D) No error

168.         (A) We met our prospective employer / (B) for a briefing session / (C) in the Taj Hotel / (D) No error

169.         (A) Air pollution, together with littering / (B) are causing many problems / (C) in our cities / (D) No Error

170.         (A) If we have no definite aim before us / (B) we would only wonder about in aims pursuits / (C) and achieving nothing / (D) No error

171.         (A) The headmaster with all his senior teachers / (B) have come / (C) to attend the meeting / (D) No error

172.         (A) Grapes / (B) cannot gathered / (C) from thistles / (D) No error

173.         (A) Having found a piece of cheese / (B) two cats went to a dog / (C) to divide it among them / (D) No error

174.         (A) He is anxious not only / (B) to acquire knowledge / (C) but also eager to display it / (D) No error

175.         (A) He went to Mumbai / (B) with a view / (C) to secure a job / (D) No Error

Read the following passage and answer the following questions accordingly

 The stunning Baltimore Oriole is a common summer visitor to eastern and mid western deciduous woodlands, neighbourhoods and gardens. Baltimore Orioles winter in the tropics. About 7 inches in length the male Baltimore Oriole has a black head, throat, back and wings. Its breast, stomach and rump are bright orange. It also has the orange patch on the top of each wing and white wing bars. The tail is mostly black with orange fringes. The female is dull orange throughout.

Baltimore Orioles range throughout the eastern and mid – western United States and can be found as far west as the Dakotas. At the western edge of their range the Baltimore Orioles may breed with the Bullocks Oriole. (They were once considered the same species under the name Northern Oriole).

Baltimore Oriole build unusual pouch like nests that hang down from branches. They usually nest high in the trees, but often come down to lower heights, flashing bright orange and black feathers to delighted observers. Active and acrobatic by nature, Baltimore Orioles may even feed upside down at times.

Baltimore Orioles eat insects and berries. They can easily be attracted to gardens by nailing orange wedges to tree branches. Baltimore Orioles are also known to feed at hummingbird feeders and sapsucker wells.

176.         The other name of Baltimore Oriole was

a.      Bullock’s Oriole
b.      Baltimore’s Oriole
c.       Northern Oriole
d.      Southern Oriole

177.         The nest of Baltimore Oriole ________

a.      Is in a tree cavity
b.      Stands upon a branch of a tree
c.       Hangs from a branch of a tree
d.      Is usually low in the branches

178.         Which of the following is closest in size to a Baltimore Oriole?

a.      The size of a half scale
b.      A little more than half – scale
c.       A little less than half – scale
d.      A foot ruler

179.         The Baltimore Oriole send the winters in the ________

a.      Dakotas
b.      Carolinas
c.       Tropics
d.      Deserts

180.         What is the colour of the female Baltimore Oriole?

a.      Bright orange
b.      Light orange
c.       Dull orange
d.      White

181.         Which of the following does not attract the Baltimore Oriole?

a.      Oranges
b.      Hummingbird feeders
c.       Sapsucking well
d.      Sunflower seeds

182.         The Baltimore Oriole can be found as far west as

a.      North and South Dakotas
b.      The Carolinas
c.       California
d.      Baltimore

183.         Which of the following is not true about Baltimore Oriole?

a.      They feed upside down sometimes
b.      They may breed with the Bullock Oriole
c.       The Baltimore Oriole is uncommon in the US
d.      The Baltimore Oriole has black throat

184.         Where would I probably not find a Baltimore Oriole?

a.      High in the trees
b.      In gardens and neighboods
c.       Deciduous woodlands
d.      Sahara Desert

185.         Which of these colours are not found on Baltimore Oriole?

a.      Purple
b.      Orange
c.       White
d.      Black

In the following questions, some parts of questions are underlined. Options A, B or C may improve that part. Choose the correct alternative. If no improvement needed select option D.

186.         The vivid photos of majestic animals and colourful birds from the wildlife park is a graphic depiction of what is beautiful in the continent of Africa.

a.      is a graphic depiction of what was beautiful in
b.      are a graphic depiction of what is beautiful in
c.       is beautiful and graphic depiction of
d.      No improvement

187.         New hires in this laboratory should anticipate excellent research opportunities and getting  valuable clinical experience

a.      As well as
b.      And also getting
c.       And obtaining
d.      No improvement

188.         It is more better to take this route than the other one

a.      Good
b.      Better
c.       More good
d.      No improvement

189.         She is absent; she must be sick again

a.      She is absent; she has been sick again
b.      She is absent; she is sick again
c.       She is absent; she must have been sick again
d.      No improvement

190.         Jackie has already gone to the airport she will meet us at the check – in counter

a.      Gone to the airport and Jackie will meet us
b.      Gone to the airport and she will meet us
c.       Gone to the airport, she ought to meet us
d.      No improvement

191.         The place at which the two roads meet, you will find a small log cabin.

a.      Where the two roads meet
b.      At the place where the two roads meet
c.       The place where the two roads meet
d.      No improvement

192.         The Blue Whale, weighing more than 150 tons, the largest known animal on Earth.

a.      Weighing more than 150 tons, it is
b.      Weighing more than 150 tons, is the
c.       Which weighs more than 150 tons, being the
d.      No improvement

193.         Although I was initially apprehensive, I found the eating of snails to be rather pleasant experience.

a.      I ate the pleasant snail’s experience
b.      I found the snails experienced
c.       I found it to be a more pleasant experience
d.      No improvement

194.         The man ate an apple, an orange and washed his hands.

a.      An apple and an orange and washed his hands
b.      An apple, an orange, washed his hands
c.       An apple, an orange and washed his hands
d.      No improvement

195.         After we ate a spectacular nine – course dinner, three television shows were watched by us.

a.      We were watching three television shows
b.      We engaged in the watching of three shows
c.       We watched three television shows
d.      No improvement

In the following questions, choose the correct alternatives which expresses the exact opposite of the given word

196.         Cultivated

a.      Crude
b.      Genteel
c.       Suave
d.      Refined

197.         Impertinent

a.      Insolent
b.      Impudent
c.       Cheeky
d.      Courteous

198.         Divulge

a.      Disseminate
b.      Dissemble
c.       Publicize
d.      Transmit

199.         Appreciation

a.      Aspersion
b.      Admiration
c.       Commendation
d.      Compliment

200.         Supple

a.      Pliant
b.      Pliable
c.       Rigid
d.      Flexible

 

 

Answers:-

 1.     d  2.   c
 3.   a
 4.   a
5.   d
6.   b
7.   d
8.  c
9.   d
10.   d
11.   c 12.  b
13.  b
14.  d
15.  a
16.  d
17.  b
18.  b
19.  b
20.   a
21.   a
22.  a
23.  c
24.  a
25.  d
26.   c
27.  b
28.  c
29.   d
30.   c
31.   d
32.   d
33.  d
34.  b
35.   b
36.   d 37.   a
38.   d 39.   c
40.   a
41.   c
42.   d
43.   b
44.   d
45.   b
46.   d
47.   d
48.   a
49.   a
50.   c
51.   d
52.   d
53.    b
54.   b
55.   b
56.    a
57.   a
58.   b
59.    b
60.   b
61.   c
62.   c
63.   b
64.   a
65.   a
66.   a
67.   b
68.   a
69.   a
70.   b
71.   b
72.   b
73.   a
74.   d
75.   a
76.   b 77.   c
78.   b
79.   b
80.   a
81.   a
82.   a
83.   c
84.  d
85.   d
86.   d
87.   a
88.   c
89.    a
90.    a
91.  b 92.   b
93.   b
94.   b
95.  b
96.  b
97.   a
98.   b
99.   a
100.   b
101.  c
102.  d
103.  a
104.  c
105.  a
106.   c 107.  b
108.   d 109.   d
110.  d
111.  a
112.  c
113.   c
114.  a
115.  a
116.  d 117.  b
118.  b
119.   b
120.  d
121.  d
122.  b
123.  a
124.   a
125.   a
126.  b
127.   c
128.  a
129.   c
130.   b
131.  a
132.   b
133.   a
134.   a
135.   c
136.  b
137.   c
138. a
139.  d
140.  a
141.  a
142.   c
143.   a
144.   d
145.   d
146.  a
147.  a
148.  b
149.   a
150.   c
151.  c
152.  b
153.  a
154.   b
155.   d
156.  a
157.   b
158.  a
159.   b
160.   c
161.  d
162.  a
163.  a
164.   d
165.   b
166.  a
167.   a
168.   c
169.  b
170.   b
171.  b
172.   b
173.   c
174.   a
175.  c
176.   c
177.   c
178.   c
179.  c
180.   c
181.   d
182.   a
183.   c
184.   a
185.   a
186.  b
187.   a
188.  b
189.   d
190.  b
191.   b
192.   b
193.   d 194.   a
195.  c
196.   a
197.  d
198.  b
199.  a
200.   c

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28 Responses to Sample Paper for SSC exam with question and answers

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