Sample Paper Of BHU PMT Entrance Exam

Sample Paper Of BHU PMT Entrance Exam

Apr 9 • Medical Sample Papers • 46435 Views • 9 Comments on Sample Paper Of BHU PMT Entrance Exam

Banaras Hindu University pre-medical test (BHU-PMT) is conducted by Banaras Hindu University for taking admission to MBBS,BDS,BAMS,BHMS,B-Pharma courses. General Candidates must have minimum 50% marks in their 10+2 th examinations with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology  and 40% marks required for SC/ST/OBC and physically Handicapped candidates from a recognized Central or State board.

The BHU PMT question paper is based on Physics, Chemistry, Biology.

Sample Paper Of BHU PMT Entrance Exam :-

Two set of sample papers are given below:-


1. A body of mass 20 gm moving at 200 m/sec passes through a plank and its velocity reduces to 100 m/ sec. In passing through the plank, what part of its K.E. is lost:

a. 1/4

b. 1/2

c. 3/4

d. 2/3

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2. The tension in the string revolving in a vertical circle with a mass m at the end which is at the lowest position

a. mv2/r

b. (mv2/r)- mg

c. (mv2/r)+ mg

d. mg

3. A bomb of mass 12 kg explodes into two pieces of mases 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of mass 8 kg is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of mass 4 kg will be :

a. 48 joule

b. 32 joule

c. 24 joule

d. 288 joule

4. A block of mass M slides along the sides of a flat bottomed bowl. The slides of the bowl are frictionless and the base has a coefficient of friction 0.2. If the block is released from the top of the side which is 1.5 m high, where will the block come to rest. Given, the length of the base is 15 m:

a. 1 m from P

b. Mid point of flat part PQ

c. 2 m from P

d. at Q

5. The power of a pump, which can pump 200 kg of water to a height of 200 m in 10 sec is (g=10 m/s2):

a. 40 kW

b. 80 kW

c. 400 kW

d. 960 kW

6. A long spiral sprig is stretched by 2 cm, its P.E. is U. If the srping is stretched by 10 cm, then the P.E. of the spring is :

a. U/ 25

b. U / 5

c. 5 U

d. 25U

7. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same force:

a. No work is done in case of both the springs

b. Equal work is doen in case of both the springs

c. More work is done in case of second spring

d. More work is done in case of first spring

8. A monkey sits on the pan of spring scale kept in an elevator. The reading of the spring scale will be maximum when :

a. The elevator is stationary

b. The elevator cable breaks and it falls freely towards earth

c. The elevator accelerates downwards

d. The elevator accelerates upwards

9. Friction force is

a. self adjustable

b. not self adjustable

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of these

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10. A body of mass 2 kg is hung on a spring balance mounted vertically in a lift. If the lift moves up with a constant velocity of 2 m/sec, the reading on the balance wil be

a. 2 kg

b. 4 kg

c. Zero

d. 1 kg

11. A boy of 50 kg is standing in a lift moving down with an acceleration 9.8 m/s2. The apparanet weight of the boy is

a. zero

b. 50N

c. 50×9.8N

d. 50/9.8 N

13. Maximum value of force of friction is called

a. limiting friction

b. rolling friction

c. normal friction

d. kinetic friction

14. The linear momentum p of a body moving in one dimension varies with time according to the equation p = a+bt2 where a and b are positive constants. The net force acting on the body is:

a. proportional to t2

b. a constant

c. proportional to t

d. inversely proportional to t

15. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown on a frinctionless table. They are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg, and m3 = 4 kg, the tension T2 will be:

a. 20N

b. 40 N

c. 10 N

d. 32 N

16. A box is lying on an inclined plane. If the box starts sliding when the angle of inclination is 60°, then the coefficient of static friction of the box and plane is

a. 2.732

b. 1.732

c. 0.267

d. 0.176

17. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating the gun can exert and average force of 144 N at the most. How many bullets (maximum number) can be shot per sec?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 6

18. A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 6 m on a frictionless surface by a fore of 106 N applied to the other end. The linear density of the rope is 0.5 kg/m. The force acting on 50 kg mass is

a. 50 N

b. 100 N

c. 150 N

d. 200 N

19. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 ms–1 to 3.5 ms–1 in 25 seconds. The direction of motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude of force?

a. 0.09 N

b. 0.045 N

c. 0.18 N

d. None of these

20. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-s momentum is 1000 N. The time required is

a. 25 s

b. 2.5 × 104 s

c. 0.25 s

d. 0.025 s

21. A man of mass 60 kg is standing on a spring balance inside a lift. If the lift falls freely downwards, then the reading of the spring balance will be

a. 60 kgf

b. More than 60 kgf

c. Less than 60 kgf

d. Zero

22. When a wagon is pulled by a horse, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force

a. He exerts on the wagon

b. The wagon exerts on him

c. The ground exerts on him

d. He exerts on the ground

23. A machine gun fires 10 bullet/s, each of mass 10 g, the speed of each bullet is 20 cm/s, then force of recoil is

a. 200 dyne

b. 2000 dyne

c. 20 dyne

d. none of these

24. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is

a. Both the scales read M kg each

b. The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero

c. The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg

d. Both the scales read M/2 kg

25. A 40 N block is supported by two ropes. One rope is horizontal and the other makes an angle of 30° with the ceiling. The tension in the rope attached to the ceiling is approximately

a. 80 N

b. 40 N

d. 34.6 N

d. 46.2 N

26. Phenolphthalein of pH range [8-10] is used in which of the following type of titration as a suitable indicator :

a. NH4OH and HCI

b. NH4OH and HCOOH

c. NH4OH and C2H4O2

d. NaOH and C2O4H2

27. The oxidation number of C atom in Ch2CI2 and CCI4 are respectively :

a. -2 and – 4

b. 0 and – 4

c. 0 and 4

d. 2 and 4

28. Which of the following compound is not aromatic :

(1) 1, 3-cyclobutene

(2) pyridine

(3) furane

(4) thiophene

29. L.P.G. mainly consist of the following :

a. Methane

b. Hydrogen

c. Acetylene

d. Butane

30. A sample of petroleum contains 30% n-heptane, 10% 2-methyl hexane and 60% 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane, the octane no. of this sample will be :

a. 30%

b. 60%

c. 10%

d. 70%

31. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 3.98 x 10-6 mole per liter. The pH value of this solution will be :

a. 6.0

b. 5.8

c. 5.4

d. 5.9

32. Which of the following acids does not contain – COOH group :

a. Carbamic acid

b. Barbituric acid

c. Lactic acid

d. succinnic acid

33. The solution of BiCl3 in dil. HCI when diluted with water white precipitate is formed which is :

a. Bismith oxychloride

b. Bismith oxide

c. Bismith hydroxide

d. none of these

34. Which of the following aromatic compound gives sulphonation reaction very easily :

a. Chlorobenzene

b. Nitrobenzene

c. Toluene

d. benzene

35. The natural rubber is the polymer of :

a. 1, 3- butadiene

b. polyamide

c. isoprene

d. none of these

36. The volume concentration of hydrogen peroxide 6.8% concentration will be :

a. 5

b. 11.2

c. 22.4

d. 20

37. Benzene reacts with CH3COCI in presence of Lewis acid AICI3 to form :

a. Acetophenone

b. Toluene

c. Benzyl Chloride

d. Chlorobenzene

38. The mole of hydrogen ion in 50 ml. of 0.1 M HCI solution will be :

a. 5 x 102

b. 5 x 10-3

c. 5 x 103

d. 5 x 10-2

39. F3 is :

a. Bronsted base

b. Lewis base

c. Lewis acid

d. Bronsted acid

40. The false statement for Griynaed reagent is :

a. It gives tertiary alcohol with acetamide

b. It gives tertiary alcohol with acetone

c. It gives secondary alcohol with acetaldehyde

d. It gives primary alcohol with formaldehyde

41. Primary halides follow the following reaction mechanism :

a. SN1

b. SN2

c. both

d. none of these

42. “The negative part of the molecule adding to the double bond goes to that unsaturated asymmetric carbon atom which is linked to the least number of hydrogen atoms.” This statement is related to :

a. Markownikoff’s law

b. Peroxide effect

c. Bayer’s law of distortion

d. none of these

43. The shape of the molecule having hybrid orbitals of 20% character will be :

a. octahedral

b. tetrahedral

c. square planer

d. triangular bipyramidal

44. Which of the following gives red precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride :

a. Propane

b. Ethane

c. Methane

d. Acetylene

45. The pH of a solution is 5. If the dilution of this solution is increased by 100 times, the pH value will be :

a. 5

b. 7

c. 9

d. 8

46. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol is works as :

a. Cooling agent

b. Anti knocking agent

c. Bleaching agent

d. None of these

47. Fool’s gold is :

a. Cu2S

b. FeS2

c. Al2O5

d. CuFeS2

48. The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as :

a. dehydrogenation

b. dehydration

c. esterification

d. saponification

49. C-H bond length is least in :

a. Acetylene

b. Methane

c. Ethylene

d. Ethane

50. Which of the following compound forms white precipitate with bromine water :

a. Nitrobenzene

b. Phenol

c. Benzene

d. all above




1. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?

a. Barbus stigma

b. Cyprinus carpio

c. Labeo bata

d. Cirrhinus mrigala


2. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

a. TSH and ACTH

b. Oestrogen and progesterone

c. FSH and LH

d. Vassopressin and oxytocin

3. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is

a. Bombyx mori

b. Antheraea mylitta

c. Antheraea assamensis

d. Philosomia ricini

4. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by

a. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length

b. Proboscis long and palpi short

c. Proboscis short and palpi long

d. Both proboscis and palpi are short

5. Cardiac muscles are

a. Striated and voluntary

b. Striated and involuntary

c. Smooth and voluntary

d. Smooth and involuntary

6. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?

a. Sycon – Canal system

b. Star fish – Radial symmetry

c. Ascaris – Flame cell

d. Prawn – Haemocoel

7. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents

a. Nerve ring

b. Cervical papilla

c. Excretory System

d. Reproductive system

8. Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is

a. Always upright

b. Always inverted

c. Mostly upright

d. Mostly inverted

9. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?

a.  IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgE

10. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called

a. Habitat

b. Niche

c. Ecotone

d. Ecotype1

1. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?

a. Platyhelminthes

b. Annelida

c. Mollusca

d. Echinodermata

12. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG ?

a. TAC – GTC

b. UAC – GUC

c. UCA – TUA

d. TCA – GTC

13. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive character (a) the genotype of parents are

a. Aa × Aa

b. Aa × aa

c. AA × aa

d. AA × Aa

14. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?

a. Leptotene

b. Zygotene

c. Pachytene

d. Diplotene

15. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by

a. Blood cells

b. Bone cells

c. Sex chromosomes

d. Autosomes

16. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe ?

a. Hearing

b. Speech

c. Vision

d. Memory

17. Structural lipids of cell membrane are

a. Simple lipid

b. Chromolipids

c. Steroid

d. Phospholipids

18. Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon ?

a. UGU

b. AAU

c. UUG

d. UAG

19. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as

a. Pepsin

b. Mucus

c. Rennin

d. HCl

20. Meissner’s corpuscles occur is

a. Brain

b. Nerve cells

c. Skin

d. Tongue

21. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by

a. facial nerve

b. trigeminal nerve

c. hypoglossal nerve

d. vagus nerve

22. Which of the following is a gastro intestine hormone ?

a. Prolactin

b. Enterokinase

c. GH

d. FSH

23. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity

a. Myoglobin

b. Actin

c. Myosin

d. Fibrin

24. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of

a. Parathyroid hormone

b. Calcitonin

c. Thyroxine

d. Adrenaline

25. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

a. Single stranded RNA

b. Double stranded DNA

c. Single stranded DNA

d. Double stranded RNA

26. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.

a. LH

b. FSH

c. GH

d. TSH

27. Longest phase of meiosis

a. Prophase I

b. Prophase II

c. Anaphase I

d. Metaphase II

28. Kupffer’s cells are

a. Phagocytic

b. Mast cells

c. Hormone secreting

d. Digestive juice secreting

29. Spindle fibre is made up of

a. humulin

b. intermediate filament

c. flagellin

d. tubulin

30. A plant cell becomes turgid due to

a. Plasmolysis

b. Exosmosis

c. Endosmosis

d. Electrolysis

31. Ovule integument gets transformed into

a. seed

b. fruit wall

c. seed coat

d. cotyledons

32. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is

a. Zygomorphic

b. Actinomorphic

c. Regular

d. Perfect

33. Structure element of Chromatin is

a. Histone

b. Acid protein and DNA

c. Nuclear matrix

d. Nucleosomes

34. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength

a. 0.05 Å

b. 0.15 Å

c. 0.25 Å

d. 0.30 Å

35. Acid rain is caused by

a. NO2

b. SO2

c. SO3

d. CO2

36. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called

a. Explant

b. Somaclone

c. Inoculant

d. Clone

37. Inulin is a polymer of

a. Glucose

b. Galactose

c. Fructose

d. Arabinose

38. Biolistic technique is used in

a. Tissue culture process

b. Gene transfer process

c. Hybridization process

d. Germplasm conservation process

39. Polyploid derived from two different species is called

a. Autopolyploid

b. Triploid

c. Allopolyploid

d. Monoploid

40. What is a genophore ?

a. DNA in prokaryotes

b. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

c. DNA and protein in prokaryotes

d. RNA in prokaryotes

41. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is

a. Dyspnea

b. Hypoxia

c. Asphyxia

d. Apnea

42. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as

a. Monosynsptic reflex arc

b. Disynaptic reflex arc

c. Polysynaptic reflex arc

d. Asynaptic reflex arc

43. The cause of cretinism is

a. Hypothyroidism

b. Hypoparathyroidism

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hyperparathyroidism

44. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is

a. Ligin

b. Suberin

c. Inulin

d. Starch

45. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?

a. Calcium

b. Sodium

c. cAMP

d. cGMP

46. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?

a. Testosterone

b. Progesterone

c. Adrenalin

d. Aldosterone

47. The Gastrin is secreted from

a. Intestine

b. Stomach

c. Pancreas

d. Rectum

48. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by

a. CT Scan

b. Sphygmomanometer

c. ECG

d. EEG

49. ACTH is secreted from

a. Adrenal cortex

b. Pituitary

c. Adrenal Medulla

d. Thyroid

50. Fertilization occur in

a. Uterus

b. Ureter

c. Vagina D

d. Fallopian tube



1)      c

2)      c

3)      d

4)      b

5)      a

6)      d

7)      c

8)      d

9)      a

10)   a

11)   a

12)   a

13)   a

14)   c

15)   d

16)   b

17)   a

18)   b

19)   c

20)   d

21)   d

22)   c

23)   b

24)   a

25)   a

26)   d

27)   c

28)   a

29)   d

30)   b

31)   c

32)   b

33)   a

34)   c

35)   c

36)   d

37)   a

38)   b

39)   c

40)   a

41)   a

42)   a

43)   d

44)   d

45) b

46) b

47)   b

48)   d

49)   a

50)   b

SET-2 (Biology)

1)    b

2)    c

3)    b

4)    a

5)    b

6)    c

7)    c

8)    a

9)    b

10) c

11) a

12) b

13) b

14) c

15) d

16) c

17) d

18) d

19) d

20) c

21) c

22) b

23) a

24) a

25) b

26) d

27) a

28) a

29) d

30) c

31) c

32) a

33) d

34) a

35) b

36) a

37) c

38) b

39) c

40) a

41) b

42) a

43) a

44) d

45) b

46) d

47) b

48) d

49) b

50) d

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9 Responses to Sample Paper Of BHU PMT Entrance Exam

  1. Alka says:

    sir i waant to take admission in B.N.Y.S. please suggest me the right college

  2. rishu jaiswal says:

    mai janna chata hu ki bhu bpharmacy ka exam leti hai ki nahi . agar leti hai to total seat kitna hai . aur fees kitna hai

  3. Barun Singh says:

    BHU PMT is one of the pre medical test the is most awaited for all medical preparing students.The above content contains useful question for medical students

  4. Mamata Kumari Sharma says:

    The sample paper provided here seems to be very useful while preparing for the BHU PMT Entrance Exam

  5. Rachita Mishra says:

    The entranne exam sample paper is here which is containing important questions .The Banaras Hindu University holds All India competitive written test for admission to MBBS course (84 seats) in TWO stages: PMT-2010 Screening and PMT-2010 Main, and for BDS (38 seats), BAMS (78 seats) and B. Pharm. (33 seats) courses one stage: PMT-2010 Screening.

  6. Surabhi Singh says:

    Put in best of your efforts to crack the BHU PMT Entrance Exam. This page can surely help you out and can help you in enhancing your knowledge.

  7. patlakshi Jha says:

    The article contains sample paper of BHU pmt entrance test . This post could be very useful for the ones who are intersted to do medical.

  8. Dinesh says:

    I believe that go-thoroughgoing this article will be a helpful training for the students for their medical entrance ” Not only for BHU but also for other AIPMT & AIPVT “

  9. Seetha Manoharan says:

    most people wants to study in BHU. this is a good article. this will really helpful in the pre medical entrance.

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