Sample Paper of CETK Medical Entrance Exam with solutions

Jun 9 • Medical Sample Papers • 4973 Views • 6 Comments on Sample Paper of CETK Medical Entrance Exam with solutions

Common Entrance Test or CET Karnataka Medical Entrance Exam is conducted for taking admission to first year in Medical, Dental Courses in Karnataka. Professional colleges in Karnataka State which offers Medical and Dental Education are affiliated to the state run Universities, admit students through Karnataka CET every year. General Candidates must have mimimum 50% marks in their 10+2 th examinations with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology  and 40% marks required for SC/ST/OBC and physically Handicapt candidates from a recognized Central or State board.

The CETK Medical Entrance Exam question paper is based on Physics, Chemistry, Biology.

Sample Paper of CETK Medical Entrance Exam with solutions :-
Two set of sample papers are given below:-


1. Newton’s second law of motion gives the measure of:

a. Acceleration

b. Momentum

c. Force

d. Angular momentum


2. The power of a pump, which can pump 200 kg of water to a height of 200 m in 10 sec is (g=10 m/s2):

a. 40 kW

b. 80 kW

c. 400 kW

d. 960 kW



3. N bullets each of mass m kg are fired with a velocity of v m/s at the rate of n bullets per second upon a wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is (assuming no rebounce)

a. Nmv/n

b. n N mv

c. nNv/m

d. nmv



4. The linear momentum p of a body moving in one dimension varies with time according to the equation p = a+bt2 where a and b are positive constants. The net force acting on the body is:

a. proportional to t2

b. a constant

c. proportional to t

d. inversely proportional to t



5. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms-1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is :

a. 15 s

b. 10.90 s

c. 5.49 s

d. 2.745 s



6. Friction force is

a. self adjustable

b. not self adjustable

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of these


7. A particle has an initial velocity of 9 m/s due east and a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2 due west. The distance covered by the particle in the fifth second of its motion is

a. 0

b. 0.5 m

c. 2 m

d. none of these



8. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same force:

a. No work is done in case of both the springs

b. Equal work is doen in case of both the springs

c. More work is done in case of second spring

d. More work is done in case of first spring


9. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q are in the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following relations is true

a. P = 2Q

b. P = Q

c. PQ = 1

d. None of these


10. A bomb of mass 12 kg explodes into two pieces of mases 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of mass 8 kg is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of mass 4 kg will be :

a. 48 joule

b. 32 joule

c. 24 joule

d. 288 joule



11. If the resultant of the two vectors having magnitude of 7 and 4 is 11, the dot product of the two vectors could be

a. 28

b. 3

c. Zero

d. 7/4



12. A body of mass 20 gm moving at 200 m/sec passes through a plank and its velocity reduces to 100 m/ sec. In passing through the plank, what part of its K.E. is lost:

a. 1/4

b. 1/2

c. 3/4

d. 2/3



13. Two forces P and Q acting at a point are such that if P is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned through 90°. Then

a. P = Q

b. P = 2Q

c. P = Q/2

d. Non relation between P & Q



14. A 40 N block is supported by two ropes. One rope is horizontal and the other makes an angle of 30° with the ceiling. The tension in the rope attached to the ceiling is approximately

a. 80 N

b. 40 N

d. 34.6 N

d. 46.2 N



15. The force F acting on a particle in terms of time t and distance x is given by

                             F = (AcosBx) (CsinDt)

The dimensions of (AC) and (BD) respectively are

a. MLT–2, M0L–1T1

b. MLT–2, ML–1T–1

c. ML2T–2, M0L–1T–2

d. MLT–2, M0L–1T–1


16. A machine gun fires 10 bullet/s, each of mass 10 g, the speed of each bullet is 20 cm/s, then force of recoil is

a. 200 dyne

b. 2000 dyne

c. 20 dyne

d. none of these



17. A scooter of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h. The force required to stop of the scooter in 10 s is

a. 180 N

b. 208 N

c. 360 N

d. 720 N



18. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-s momentum is 1000 N. The time required is

a. 25 s

b. 2.5 × 104 s

c. 0.25 s

d. 0.025 s



19. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a frictionless table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 4 kg, the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is

a. 4 N

b. 3 N

c. 2 N

d. 0.6 N



20. A box is lying on an inclined plane. If the box starts sliding when the angle of inclination is 60°, then the coefficient of static friction of the box and plane is

a. 2.732

b. 1.732

c. 0.267

d. 0.176



21. A force vector  F = 2ˆI + 3ˆj N acts at a point P (4m, 2m) in xy plane then magnitude moment of force about origin of co-odinate system is

a. 14 Nm

b. 8 Nm

c. 12 Nm

d. Zero



22. Maximum value of force of friction is called

a. limiting friction

b. rolling friction

c. normal friction

d. kinetic friction



23. A room has dimension 5m × 3m × 4m. A mosquito files from one corner of the room to its diagonally opposite corner, then magnitude of displacement of mosquito is

a. 5 m

b. 5 2 m

c. 4 m

d. 3 m



24. A boy of 50 kg is standing in a lift moving down with an acceleration 9.8 m/s2. The apparanet weight of the boy is

a. zero

b. 50N

c. 50×9.8N

d. 50/9.8 N



25. Of the following which one has dimensions different from the remaining three

a. Energy per unit volume

b. Force per unit area

c. Stress × strain

d. Force × area



26. The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as :

a. dehydrogenation

b. dehydration

c. esterification

d. saponification



27. Glycerol (CH2OHCHOHCH2OH) is more viscous than ethanol because

a. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in ethanol

b. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in glycerol

c. Glycerol has higher molecular mass

d. Intramolecular H-bonding occurs in glycerol



28. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol is works as :

a. Cooling agent

b. Anti knocking agent

c. Bleaching agent

d. None of these



29. What is the actual dipole moment of HX if the bond length is 1.3A° and percentage ionic character is 20.

a. 0.26

b. 1.248

c. 0.624

d. 2.496



30. The shape of the molecule having hybrid orbitals of 20% character will be :

a. octahedral

b. tetrahedral

c. square planer

d. triangular bipyramidal



31. Which of the following does not affect the ionisation potential of the atom?

a. Nuclear charge

b. Electron neutrality with protons

c. Penetration effect

d. Atomic size



32. Primary halides follow the following reaction mechanism :

a. SN1

b. SN2

c. both

d. none of these



33. Electron–affinity of Cl is larger than that of F because

a. higher atomic radius of F

b. weaker inter electronic repulsion in Cl

c. more vacant p–subshell in Cl

d. smaller electronegativity of Cl



34. The mole of hydrogen ion in 50 ml. of 0.1 M HCI solution will be :

a. 5 x 102

b. 5 x 10-3

c. 5 x 103

d. 5 x 10-2



35. The subshell with n = 6 and l = 4 can accommodate a maximum of

a. 18 electrons

b. 16 electrons

c. 14 electrons

d. 10 electrons



36. The natural rubber is the polymer of :

a. 1, 3- butadiene

b. polyamide

c. isoprene

d. none of these



37. A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.3 % Xe. Oxidation number of Xe in this compound is :

a. –4

b. zero

c. +4

d. +6



38. The solution of BiCl3 in dil. HCI when diluted with water white precipitate is formed which is :

a. Bismith oxychloride

b. Bismith oxide

c. Bismith hydroxide

d. none of these



39. 1g of a metal required 50 mL of 0.5 N HCl to dissolve it.The equivalent mass of the metal is :

a. 25

b. 50

c. 20

d. 40



40. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 3.98 x 10-6 mole per liter. The pH value of this solution will be :

a. 6.0

b. 5.8

c. 5.4

d. 5.9



41. The equivalent weight of KIO3 in the reaction,

          2Cr(OH)3 + (OH)+ KIO3 à 2CrO42– + 5H2O + KI  is :

a. Molecular weight

b. (Molecularweight)/3

c. (Molecularweight)/6

d. (Molecularweight)/2



42. The oxidation number of C atom in Ch2CI2 and CCI4 are respectively :

a. -2 and – 4

b. 0 and – 4

c. 0 and 4

d. 2 and 4



43. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q are in the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following relations is true

a. P = 2Q

b. P = Q

c. PQ = 1

d. None of these



44. Phenolphthalein of pH range [8-10] is used in which of the following type of titration as a suitable indicator :

a. NH4OH and HCI

b. NH4OH and HCOOH

c. NH4OH and C2H4O2

d. NaOH and C2O4H2



45. In Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of the gaseous mixture under the aforesaid conditions in the end?

a. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 20 L H2

b. 10 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

c. 20 L NH3, 10 L N2 and 30 L H2

d. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2



46. The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16g at 50°C. The minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4g K2SO4 is:

a. 10g

b. 25g

c. 50g

d. 75g



47. “The negative part of the molecule adding to the double bond goes to that unsaturated asymmetric carbon atom which is linked to the least number of hydrogen atoms.” This statement is related to :

a. Markownikoff’s law

b. Peroxide effect

c. Bayer’s law of distortion

d. none of these



48. How many moles of HCl will be present in 100 mL of a solution of specific gravity 1.08, containing 20% HCl by mass ?

a. 0.50

b. 0.60

c. 0.80

d. 0.12



49. Benzene reacts with CH3COCI in presence of Lewis acid AICI3 to form :

a. Acetophenone

b. Toluene

c. Benzyl Chloride

d. Chlorobenzene



50. A sample of petroleum contains 30% n-heptane, 10% 2-methyl hexane and 60% 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane, the octane no. of this sample will be :

a. 30%

b. 60%

c. 10%

d. 70%






1. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of

a. Parathyroid hormone

b. Calcitonin

c. Thyroxine

d. Adrenaline



2. A mother of blood group O has a group O child. The father could be?

a. A or B or O

b. O only

c. A or B

d. AB only



3. Which of the following is a gastro intestine hormone ?

a. Prolactin

b. Enterokinase

c. GH

d. FSH



4. Geology and Zoology are intimately connected in

a. Archaeology

b. Palaeontology

c. Sociology

d. Zoogeography



5. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as

a. Pepsin

b. Mucus

c. Rennin

d. HCl



6. Presence of temporary gill pouches in embryos of snakes, birds and mammals indicates that

a. These embryos need the pouches for breathing

b. Common ancestor of these animals had gill pouches

c. Lungs evolved from gills

d. Fluid medium in which these embryos develop has abundant O2



7. Structural lipids of cell membrane are

a. Simple lipid

b. Chromolipids

c. Steroid

d. Phospholipids



8. Two geographical regions separated by high mountain ranges

a. Palaearctic and Oriental

b. Oriental and Australian

c. Nearctic and Palaearctic

d. Neotropical and Ethopian



9. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by

a. Blood cells

b. Bone cells

c. Sex chromosomes

d. Autosomes



10. The flightless bird, Kiwi is found in

a. Mauritius

b. Indonesia

c. New Zealand

d. New Guinea



11. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive character (a) the genotype of parents are

a. Aa × Aa

b. Aa × aa

c. AA × aa

d. AA × Aa



12. Dominant gene for tallness is T and for yellow colour is Y. A plant heterozygous for both the traits is selfed, then the ratio of pure homozygous dwarf and green offspring would be

a. 1/4

b. 4/16

c. 3/16

d. 1/16



13. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?

a. Platyhelminthes

b. Annelida

c. Mollusca

d. Echinodermata


14. The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is

a. 3 : 1

b. 1 : 2 : 1

c. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

d. 1 : 1



15. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?

a.  IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgE



16. The evolution of numerous species, such as Darwin’s finches, from a single ancestor is called

a. Adaptive radiation

b. Sympatric speciation

c. Gradualism

d. Convergent evolution



17. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents

a. Nerve ring

b. Cervical papilla

c. Excretory System

d. Reproductive system



18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of natural selection?

a. Natural selection causes genetic changes in individuals

b. Natural selection acts on individuals but evolution occurs in populations

c. Fitness of an organism is measured by its reproductive success

d. Natural selection is not the only evolutionary force



19. Cardiac muscles are

a. Striated and voluntary

b. Striated and involuntary

c. Smooth and voluntary

d. Smooth and involuntary


20. Mutations

a. Are the ultimate source of genetic variability

b. Are goal directed

c. Are commonly occurring phenomenon

d. Arise as a result of, or in anticipation of environmental necessities



21. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is

a. Bombyx mori

b. Antheraea mylitta

c. Antheraea assamensis

d. Philosomia ricini



22. The chromosomes bearing loops for rapid transcription and informosomes production are

a. Lampbrush chromosomes

b. Polytene chromosomes

c. SAT chromosomes

d. B chromosomes



23. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

a. TSH and ACTH

b. Oestrogen and progesterone

c. FSH and LH

d. Vassopressin and oxytocin



24. X-rays cause mutation by

a. Transition

b. Transversion

c. Deletion

d. Base substitution



25. Fertilization occur in

a. Uterus

b. Ureter

c. Vagina D

d. Fallopian tube



26. The Theory of Recapitulation means that

a. All animals start as an egg

b. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history

c. Body parts once lost are regenerated

d. Progeny of an organisms resembles its parents



27. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by

a. CT Scan

b. Sphygmomanometer

c. ECG

d. EEG



28. Wheat plant is 6n = 42. What will be the number of chromosomes in it’s Monosomic, haploid and Trisomics?

a. 41, 21 and 7

b. 43, 21 and 7

c. 15, 7 and 7

d. 13, 7 and 15



29. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?

a. Testosterone

b. Progesterone

c. Adrenalin

d. Aldosterone



30. A person meet with an accident and great loss of blood has occured. There is not time to analyse his blood groups. It is safe to transfuse blood of

a. AB, Rh+

b. AB, Rh¯

c. O, Rh¯

d. O, Rh+



31. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is

a. Ligin

b. Suberin

c. Inulin

d. Starch



32. If genes A and B show supplementary gene effect for mice coat colour, such that aa is rescessively epistatic to B, what would be the ratio of agouti, black & albino in the cross aaBB × AaBb

a. 1 : 2 : 1

b. 1 : 1 : 2

c. 2 : 2

d. 4: 3 : 1



33. The cause of cretinism is

a. Hypothyroidism

b. Hypoparathyroidism

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hyperparathyroidism



34. Two animals are considered different species if they

a. Look different

b. Cannot inter-breed

c. Live in different habitats

d. Are members of different populations



35. ACTH is secreted from

a. Adrenal cortex

b. Pituitary

c. Adrenal Medulla

d. Thyroid



36. The smallest unit that can evolve is a

a. Species

b. Genotype

c. Gene

d. Population



37. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by

a. CT Scan

b. Sphygmomanometer

c. ECG

d. EEG



38. Genetic basis of adaptation was demonstrated through experiments by

a. Lederberg

b. Hugo de Vries

c. Charles Darwin

d. Lamarck



39. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?

a. Testosterone

b. Progesterone

c. Adrenalin

d. Aldosterone



40. Disruptive selection

a. Adapts individuals within a population to different habitats

b. Favours individuals who possess relatively extreme values for a trait at the expense of individuals with average values

c. Favours organisms at both ends of the distribution of the trait

d. All of the above



41. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is

a. Ligin

b. Suberin

c. Inulin

d. Starch



42. The condition required for Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is

a. No mutation and no gene flow between populations

b. Very large population and random mating

c. There must be no natural selection

d. All of the above



43. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as

a. Monosynsptic reflex arc

b. Disynaptic reflex arc

c. Polysynaptic reflex arc

d. Asynaptic reflex arc



44. Mendel observed that some characters did not assort independently. Later researches found it to be due to

a. Crossing over

b. Linkage

c. Dominance of one trait over theother

d. Amitosis



45. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is

a. Dyspnea

b. Hypoxia

c. Asphyxia

d. Apnea


46. Polyploid derived from two different species is called

a. Autopolyploid

b. Triploid

c. Allopolyploid

d. Monoploid



47. Which of the following increases the frequency of crossing over when increased ?

a. Temperature

b. X rays

c. Radium radiations

d. All of these



48. Biolistic technique is used in

a. Tissue culture process

b. Gene transfer process

c. Hybridization process

d. Germplasm conservation process



49. Inulin is a polymer of

a. Glucose

b. Galactose

c. Fructose

d. Arabinose



50. Higest number of chromosomes in plants have been recorded in

a. Marsilia

b. Aulosira

c. Ophioglossum

d. Parthenium



1)    Answer: c

2)    Answer: a

3)    Answer: d

4)    Answer: c

5)    Answer: c

6)    Answer: a

7)    Answer: b

8)    Answer: c

9)    Answer: a

10) Answer: d

11) Answer: a

12) Answer: c

13) Answer: a

14) Answer: a

15) Answer: d

16) Answer: b

17) Answer: c

18) Answer: d

19) Answer: d

20) Answer: b

21) Answer: b

22) Answer: a

23) Answer: b

24) Answer: a

25) Answer: d

26) Answer:d

27) Answer: b

28) Answer:b

29) Answer: b

30) Answer:d

31) Answer: b

32) Answer:a

33) Answer: b

34) Answer:b

35) Answer: a

36) Answer: c

37) Answer: d

38) Answer: a

39) Answer: d

40) Answer: c

41) Answer: c

42) Answer: c

43) Answer: a

44) Answer: d

45) Answer: b

46) Answer: b

47) Answer:a

48) Answer: b

49) Answer:a

50) Answer: b

SET – B (Biology)

1)    Answer:a

2)    Answer: a

3)    Answer:b

4)    Answer: b

5)    Answer: d

6)    Answer: b

7)    Answer:d

8)    Answer: a

9)    Answer: d

10) Answer: c

11) Answer: c

12) Answer: d

13) Answer:a

14) Answer: a

15) Answer: b

16) Answer: a

17) Answer: c

18) Answer: a

19) Answer: b

20) Answer: a

21) Answer: b

22) Answer: a

23) Answer:c

24) Answer: c

25) Answer:d

26) Answer: b

27) Answer:d

28) Answer: d

29) Answer:d

30) Answer: c

31) Answer:d

32) Answer: c

33) Answer:a

34) Answer: b

35) Answer:b

36) Answer: d

37) Answer:d

38) Answer: a

39) Answer:d

40) Answer: d

41) Answer:d

42) Answer: d

43) Answer:a

44) Answer: b

45) Answer:b

46) Answer:c

47) Answer: d

48) Answer:b

49) Answer:c

50) Answer: c




























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6 Responses to Sample Paper of CETK Medical Entrance Exam with solutions

  1. khushi says:

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  2. Rachita Mishra says:

    With answers some important question are here of the CETK which is a common entrance test for those students, aspiring for admission to first … Chemistry and Mathematics and those seeking for Medical courses. you may like this

  3. Surabhi Singh says:

    Want to get through the CETK Medical Entrance Exam then check out these sample papers along with the solutions that can surely help you to some extend.

  4. patlakshi Jha says:

    A very informative post for the medical students. This consists of few sample questions which are asked in entrance exam of CET Karnataka.

  5. Dinesh says:

    In Karnataka the CETK Medical Entrance Examination is very difficult to clear, anyone will gothrough this article will be helpful to know the toughness and pattern of the examination…

  6. Seetha Manoharan says:

    karnataka is the best place to study medical. this is a good one to help the entrance exam.

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