Sample Paper of Chemistry for BITSAT

Sample Paper of Chemistry for BITSAT

Roshni Mishra 1:47 am

Mar 4 • Engineering Sample Papers • 2282 Views • 1 Comment on Sample Paper of Chemistry for BITSAT

BITSAT (Birla Institute of Technology and Science Aptitude Test) is a computer based online test conducted by Birla Institute of Technology for admission to first degree programmes like B.E(hons),M.Sc(hons),M.Sc(tech).Total 150 questions are asked in exam.The exam question paper contains questions from Physics(40),Chemistry(40),maths(45),Logical reasoning(10),English Proficiency(15).Total time for exam is 3 hours.For each correct ans 3 marks awarded and for each incorrect ans 1 mark deducted.

Sample paper of chemistry for BITSAT

BITSAT sample papers

Special opportunity is being given to intelligent students to score more marks.If a candidate is able to answer all questions without leaving any question then that particular person get the chance to attempt 12 more questions if still time left with him.Extra questions will be from phy,chem,maths.Also if a candidate go for extra questions,he cannot go back and change any ans from his 150 questions answered

Here is a sample paper of chemistry for BITSAT along with physics,mathematics and English questions .Go through this sample paper,it will be surely helpful to you

Sample paper of chemistry for BITSAT:-

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Chemistry questions:-

1) An electronic transition in hydrogen atom results – in the formation of Ha line of hydrogen in Lyman series, the energies associated with the electron in each of the orbits involved in the transition (in kcal mol-1) are

(a) -313.6, – 34.84

(b) -313.6, -78.4

(c) -78.4, – 34.84

(d) -78.4, -19.6

ans:-b

2) The velocities of two particles A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms-1 respectively. The mass of B is five times the mass of A. The ratio of their de- Broglie’s wavelength is

(a) 2 : 1

(b) -1: 4

(c) 1 : 1

(d) 4 : 1

ans:-a

3) If the mass defect of 5B11 is 0.081 u, its average binding energy (in MeV) is

(a) 8.60

(b) 6.85

(c) 5.60

(d) 5.86

ans:-b

4) The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C and D are Z – 1, Z, Z + 1 and Z + 2, respectively. If ‘B’ is a noble gas, choose the correct answers from the following statements

(1) ‘A’ has higher electron affinity

(2) ‘C” exists in +2 oxidation state

(3) ‘D’ is an alkaline earth metal

(a) (1) and (2)

(b) (2) and (3)

(c) (1) and (3)

(d) (1), (2) and (3)

ans:-c

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5) The bond length of HCI molecule is 1.275 Å and its dipole moment is 1.03 D. The ionic character of the molecule (in percent) (charge of the electron = 4.8 × 10-10 esu) is

(a) 100

(b) 67.3

(c) 33.66

(d) 16.83

ans:-d

6) Which one of the following is a correct set?

(a) H2O, Sp3, angular

(b) BCl3, Sp3, angular

(c) NH+4, dsp2, square planar

(d) CH4, dsp2, tetrahedral

ans:-a

7) What is the temperature at which the kinetic energy of 0.3 moles of helium is equal to the kinetic energy of 0.4 moles of argon -at 400 K?

(a) 400 K

(b) 873 K

(c) 533 K

(d) 300 K

ans:-c

8) When 25 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 100.g of water, the vapour pressure is lowered by 2.25 × 10-1 mm. If the vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 17.5 mm, what is the molecular weight of the solute?

(a) 206

(b) 302

(c) 350

(d) 276

ans:-c

9) 50 mL of H2O is added to 50 mL of 1 × 10-3 M barium hydroxide solution. What is the pH of the resulting solution?

(a) 3.0

(b) 3.3

(c) 11.0

(d) 11.7

ans:-c

10) Assertion (A): The aqueous solution of CH3COONa is alkaline in nature.

      Reason (R): Acetate ion undergoes anionic hydrolysis

The correct answer is

(a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is not true.

(d) (A) is not true but (R) is true.

anS:-a

sample paper of chemistry for BITSAT

11) When same quantity of electricity is passed through aqueous AgNO3 and H2SO4 solutions connected in series, 5.04 × 10-2 g of H2 is liberated. What is the mass of silver (in grams) deposited? (Eq. wts. of hydrogen = 1. 008, silver = 108)

(a) 54

(b) 0.54

(c) 5.4

(d) 10.8

ans:-c

12) When electric current is passed through acidified water for 1930 s, 1120 mL of H2 gas is collected (at STP) at the cathode. What is the current passed in amperes?

(a) 0.05

(b) 0.50

(c) 5.0

(d) 50

ans:-c

13) For a crystal, the angle of diffraction (2) is 90° and the second order line has a d value of 2.28 Å. The wavelength (in Å) of X-rays used for Bragg’s diffraction is

(a) 1.612

(b) 2.00

(c) 2.28

(d) 4.00

ans:-a

14) In a 500 mL flask, the degree of dissociation of PCl5 at equilibrium is 40% and the initial amount is 5 moles. The value of equilibrium constant in mol L-1 for the decomposition of PCl5 is

(a) 2.33

(b) 2.66

(c) 5.32

(d) 4.66

ans:-b

15) Which one of the following reactions represents the oxidising property of H2O2?

(a) 2KMnO4 + 3H2O4 + 5H2O2

K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5O2

(b) 2K3[Fe(CN)6] + 2KOH+ H2O2

2K4[Fe(CN)6] + 2H2O + O2

(c) PbO2 + H2O2 PbO + H2O + O2

(d) 2KI+ H2SO4 + H2O2 K2SO4 + 12 + 2H2O

ans:-d

16) Which of-the following statements are correct for alkali metal compounds?

(i) Superoxides are paramagnetic in nature.

(ii) The basic strengths of hydroxides increases down the group.

(iii) The conductivity of chlorides in their aqueous solutions decreases down the group.

(iv) The basic nature of carbonates in aqueous solutions is due to cationic hydrolysis.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(b) (i) and (ii) only

(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(d) (iii) and (iv) only

ans:-b

17) Boron halides behave as Lewis acids because of their nature.

(a) proton donor

(b) covalent

(c) electron deficient

(d) ionising

ans:-c

18) The number of sigma and pi bonds in peroxodisulphuric acid are, respectively

(a) 9 and 4

(b) 11 and 4

(c) 4 and 8

(d) 4 and 9

ans:-a

19) Which one of the following reactions does not occur?

(a) F2 + 2CI- 2F- + Cl2

(b) Cl2 + 2F- 2CI- + F2

(c) Br2 + 2I- 2Br- + I2

(d) Cl2 + 2Br- 2Cr + Br2

ans:-b

20) The compound in which the number of d- p bonds are equal to those present in CIO-4

(a) XeF4

(b) XeO3

(c) XeO4

(d) XeF6

ans:-b

sample paper of chemistry for BITSAT

21) [Co(NH3)5 SO4] Br and [Co(NH3)5 Br) SO4 are a pair of isomers.

(a) ionisation

(b) ligand

(c) coordination

(d) hydrate

ans:-b

22) Among the following compounds, which one is not responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

(a) CH4

(b) CFCl3

(c) NO

(d) Cl2

ans:-a

23) According to Cahn-Ingold-Prelog sequence rules, the correct order of priority for the given groups is

(a) – COOH > – CH2OH > – OH > – CHO

(b) – COOH > – CHO > -CH2 OH > – OH

(c) -OH> – CH2OH > – CHO > –COOH

(d) -OH > – COOH > – CHO > – CH2OH

ans:-a

24) What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction?

Z – product butyne product

(a) Na/NH3(liq.) and Pd/BaSO4 + H2

(b) Ni/140°C and Pd/BaSO4 + H2

(c) Ni/140°C and Na/NH3(liq.)

(d) Pd/ BaSO4 + H2 and Na/NH3(liq.)

ans:-d

25) In which of the following reactions, chlorine acts as an oxidising agent?

(i) CH3CH2OH + Cl2 CH3CHO + HCI

(ii) CH3CHO + Cl2 CCl3 . CHO + HCI

(iii) CH4 + Cl2 CH3CI + HCl

The correct answer is

(a) (i) only

(b) (ii) only

(c) (i) and (iii)

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

ans:-a

26) The correct order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ethyl alcohol is

(a) HF > HCI > HBr > HI

(b) HCl > HBr > HF > HI

(c) HBr > HCl > HI > HF

(d) HI > HBr > HCl > HF

ans:-d

27) Acetone on addition to methyl magnesium bromide forms a complex, which on decomposition with acid gives X and Mg(OH)Br. Which one of the following is X?

(a) CH3OH

(b) (CH3)3COH

(c) (CH3)2 CHOH

(d) CH3CH2OH

ans:-d

29) Match the following:

List-I List-II

(A) Oxyhemoglobin (i) Analgesic

(B) Aspirin (ii) Oxygen carrier

(C) Hemoglobin (iii) Photosynthesis

(D) Chlorophyll (iv) Oil of winter green

(v) Fe2+ paramagnetic

The correct match is

A B C D

(a) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(d) (v) (ii) (iii) (i)

ans:-a

30) Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid yields

(a) 1: 1 D – (+)- glucose; D-(-)-fructose

(b) 1: 2 D – ( + )-glucose; D-(-)-fructose

(c) 1: 1 D-H-glucose; p- (+) -fructose

(d) 1: 2 D-(-)-glucose; D- (+) –fructose

ans:-a

Maths Questions:-

1. x belongs to R such that 2x-1/x^3+4x^2+3x belongs to R

(a) R – {0}

(b) R – {0, 1, 3}

(c) R – {0, -1, – 3}

(d) R – {0, -1, -3, ½}

SOL:- C

2. The number of subsets of {1, 2, 3, ……. , 9} containing at least one odd number is –

(a) 324

(b) 396

(c) 496

(d) 512

SOL:- C

3. The coefficient of x24 in the expansion of (1 + x2)12(1 + x12) (1 + x24) is

(a) 12C6

(b) 12C6 + 2

(c) 12C6 + 4

(d) 12C6 + 6

SOL:- B

4. For | x | < 1, the constant term in the expansion of

(a) 2

(b) 1

(c) 0

(d) -1/2

SOL:- D

5. The roots of (x – a) (x – a-1) + (x – a -1) (x – a – 2) + (x – a) (x – a – 2) = 0, a R are always

(a) Equal

(b) Imaginary

(c) real and distinct

(d) rational and equal

SOL:- C

6. Let f(x) = x2 + ax + b, where a, b R. If f(x) = 0 has all its roots imaginary, then the roots of f(x) + f’ (x) + f” (x) = 0 are

(a) Real and distinct

(b) Imaginary

(c) Equal

(d) Rational and equal

SOL:- B

7. If one of the roots of the other roots are

(a) 3, 7

(b) 4, 7

(c) 3, 9

(d) 3, 4

SOL:- A

8. If x, y, z are all positive and are the pth, qth and rth terms of a geometric progression respectively, then the value of the determinant

(a) log xyz

(b) (p -1) (q – 1)(r -1)

(c) pqr

(d) 0

SOL:- D

9. If has no inverse, then” the real value of x is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 0

(d) 1

SOL:- D

10. The locus of z satisfying the inequality

(a) x2 + y2 < 1

(b) x2 – y2 < 1

(c) x2 + y2 > 1

(d) 2×2 + 3y2 < 1

SOL:- C

11. In a quadrilateral ABCD, the point P divides DC in the ratio 1:2 and Q is the mid point of AG. If + 2 + – 2 = k , then k is equal to

(a) – 6

(b) – 4

(c) 6

(d) 4

SOL:- A

12. If m1, m2, m3 and m4 are respectively the magnitudes of the vectors

1 = 2 – + , 2 = 3 – 4 – 4,

3 = + – and 4 = – + 3 + ,

then the correct order of m1, m2, m3 and m4 is

(a) m3 < m1 < m4 < m2

(b) m3 < m1 < m2 < m4

(c) m3 < m4 < m1 < m2

(d) m3 < m4 < m2 < m1

SOL:- A

13. The area (in square unit) of the circle which touches the lines 4x + 3y = 15 and 4x + 3y = 5 is

(a) 4π

(b) 3π

(c) 2π

(d) π

SOL:- D

14. The point on the line 3x + 4y = 5 which is equidistant

2) and (3, 4) is

(a) (7, – 4)

(b) (15, -10)

(c) (1/7, 8/7)

(d) (0, 5/4)

SOL:- B

15.The equation of the straight line perpendicular to the straight line 3x, + 2y = 0 and passing through. the point of intersection of the lines x + 3y – 1 = 0 and x – 2y + 4 = 0 is

(a) 2x – 3y + 1 = 0

(b) 2x – 3y + 3 = 0

(c) 2x – 3y + 5 = 0

(d) 2x – 3y + 7 = 0

SOL:- D

16. The value of A with. | | < 16 such that 2×2 – 10xy + 12y2 + 5x + y – 3 = 0 represents a pair of straight lines, is

(a) -10

(b) -9

(c) 10

(d) 9

SOL:- D

16. The area (in square unit) of the triangle formed by x + y + 1 = 0 and the pair of straight lines x2 – 3xy + 2y2 = 0 is

(a) 7/12

(b) 5/12

(c) 1/12

(d) 1/6

SOL:- C

17. The pairs of straight lines x2 – 3xy + 2y2 = 0 and x2 – 3xy + 2y2 + x – 2 = 0 form a

(a) Square but not rhombus

(b) Rhombus

(c) Parallelogram

(d) Rectangle but not a square

SOL:- C

18. The equations of the circle which pass through the origin and makes intercepts of lengths 4 and 8 on the x and y-axes respectively are

(a) x2 + y2 ± 4x ± 8y = 0

(b) x2 + y2 ± 2x ± 4y = 0

(c) x2 + y2 ± 8x ± 16y = 0

(d) x2 + y2 ± x ± y = 0

SOL:- A

19. The locus of centre of a circle which passes through the origin and cuts off a length of 4 unit from the line x = 3 is

(a) y2 + 6x = 0

(b) y2 + 6x = 13

(c) y2 + 6x = 10

(d) x2 + 6y = 13

SOL:- B

20. The point (3, – 4) lies on both the circles x2 + y2 – 2x + 8y + 13 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y + 11 = 0 Then, the angle between the circles

(a) 60°

(b) tan-1

(c) tan-1

(d) 135°

SOL:- D

21. The equation of the circle which passes through the origin and cuts orthogonally each of the circles x2 + y2 – 6x + 8 = 0

and x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = T is

(a) 3×2 + 3y2 – 8x – 13y = 0

(b) 3×2 + 3y2 – 8x + 29y = 0

(c) 3×2 + 3y2 + 8x + 29y = 0

(d) 3×2 + 3y2 – 8x – 29y = 0

SOL:- B

22. The number of normals drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the point (1, 0) is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

SOL:- B

Sample paper of maths for BITSAT

23. If the circle x2 + y2 = a2 intersects the hyperbola xy = c2 in four points (xi, yi), fori = 1, 2, 3 and 4, then y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 equals

(a) 0

(b) c

(c) a

(d) c4

SOL:- A

24. The mid point of the chord 4x – 3y = 5 of the hyperbola 2×2 – 3y2 – 12 is

(a) 0, -5/3

(b) 2,1

(c) 5/4, 0

(d) 11/4, 2

SOL:- C

25. If a line in the space makes angle a, p and y with the coordinate axes, then

cos 2a + cos 2 + cos 2y + sin2 a + sin2 + sin2 y equals

(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) 2

SOL:- C

26. The image of the point (3, 2, 1) in the plane 2x-y+3z = 7 is

(a) (1, 2, 3)

(b) (2, 3, 1)

(c) (3, 2, 1)

(d) (2, 1, 3)

SOL:- C

27. y = ea sin-1 x (1 – x2) yn+2 – (2n + 1) xyn+1 is equal to

(a) -(n2 + a2)yn

(b) (n2 – a2)y n

(c) (n2 + a2) yn

(d) -(n2 – a2) yn

SOL:- C

28. The function f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, a2 3b has

(a) one maximum value

(b) one minimum value

(c) no extreme value

(d) one maximum and one minimum value

SOL:- C

29. The solution of the differential equation

(a) cosec (x + y) + tan(x + y) = x + c

(b) x + cosec (x + y) = c

(c) x + tan (x + y) = c

(d) x + sec (x + y) = c

SOL:- B

Physics Questions:-

1) Statement (S): Using Huygen’s eye-piece measurements can be taken but are not correct.

Reason (R): The cross wires, scale .and final image are not magnified proportionately because the image of the object is magnified by two lenses, whereas the cross wire scale is magnified by one lens only.

Identify the correct one of the following

(a) Both (S) and (R) are true, (R) explains (S).

(b) Both (S) and (R) are true, but (R) canner explain (S).

(c) Only (S) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(d) Both-(S) and (R) are wrong.

Ans:- (a) Both (S) and (R) are true, (R) explains (S).

2) An achromatic combination of lenses produces –

(a) images in black and white

(b) coloured images ,

(c) images unaffected by variation of refractive index with wavelength

(d) highly enlarged images are formed

Ans:- (c) images unaffected by variation of refractive index with wavelength

3) With a standard rectangular bar magnet ‘the time period of a vibration magnetometer is 4 s. The bar magnet is cut parallel to its length into four equal pieces. The time period of vibration magnetometer when one piece is used (in second) (bar magnet breadth is, small) is

(a) 16        (b) 8         (c) 4           (d) 2

Ans:- (c) 4

4) A charge of 1 π C is divided into two parts such that their charges are in the ratio of 2: 3. These two charges are kept at a distance 1 m apart in vacuum. Then, the electric force between them (in N) is

(a) 0.216           (b) 0.00216            (c) 0.0216            (d) 2.16

Ans:- (b) 0.00216

5) Two charges +q and -q are kept apart. Then at any point on the right bisector of line joining the two charges

(a) The electric field strength is zero

(b) The electric potential is zero

(c) Both electric potential and electric field strength are zero

(d) Both electric potential and electric field strength are non-zero

Ans:- (b) The electric potential is zero

6) A current of 2 A flows in an electric circuit. The potential difference (VR – VS), in volts (VR and VS are potentials at R and S respectively) is

(a) -4           (b) +2               (c) +4               (d) -2

Ans:- (c) +4

7) When a battery connected across a resistor of 16, the voltage across the resistor is 12 V. When the same battery is connected across a resistor of 10 , voltage across it is 11 V. The internal resistance of the battery (in ohm) is

(a) 10/7           (b) 20/7             (c) 25/7            (d) 30/7

Ans:-  (b) 20/7

8) In a galvanometer 5% of the total current in the circuit passes through it. If the resistance of the galvanometer is G, the shunt resistance 5 connected to the galvanometer is

(a) 19 G           (b) G/19           (c) 20 G          (d) G/20

Ans:- (b) G/19

9) Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are placed in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm and 40 cm and carry 0.2 A and 0.3 A. current respectively in opposite directions. The magnetic induction (in tesla) at the centre is

(a) 3/4           (b) 5/4             (c) 7/4             (d) 9/4

Ans:- (b) 5/4

10) The number of turns in primary- and secondary coils of a transformer is 50 and 200 respectively. If the current in the primary coil is 4 A, then the current in the secondary coil is

(a) 1 A        (b) 2 A              (c) 4 A          (d) 5 A

Ans:- (a) 1 A

English Questions:-

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the most appropriate alternative to fill in the blank.

1) The teacher ordered Kamal to leave the room …………… him to return.

(a) stopped  (b) refused  (c) forbade  (d) challenged

Ans:- (c) forbade

2) I hope you must have ……….. by now that failures are the stepping stones to success

(a) know  (b) felt  (c) decided  (d) realised

Ans:- (d) realised

3) In a little published deal, Pepsi Cola has………. the entire soft drink market in Afghanistan.

(a) conquered  (b) swallowed  (c) captured  (d) occupied

Ans:- (c) captured

Directions: In each of the following questions, put the parts P, Q, R and S in their proper order to produce the correct sentence.

4) The Bible

(P) has in many respects

(Q) the sacred book of all Christians

(R) among all the books of the world

(S) a unique character and position

Options- (a) QPSR  (b) QRPS  (c) RPQS  (d) RQPS

Ans:- (a) QPSR

5) The ultimate hope

(P) will force the nations

(Q) that the destructive nature of weapons

(R) to give up war

(S) has not been fulfilled

Options- (a) PQRS  (b) PRQS  (c) QPRS  (d) RSQP

Ans:- (c) QPRS

6) It was

(P) in keeping with my mood

(Q) a soft summer evening,

(R) as I walked sedately

(S) in the direction of the new house

Options-  (a) QPRS  (b) QRPS  (c) SQPR  (d) SRPQ

Ans:- (a) QPRS

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the some in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

7) EPHEMERAL

(a) Uneral  (b) Mythical  (c) Short-living  (d) Artificial

Ans:- (c) Short-living

8) STUBBORN

(a) Easy   (b) Obstinate   (c) Willing  (d) Pliable

Ans:- (b) Obstinate

9) PROGNOSIS

(a) Identification  (b) Preface  (c) Forecast  (d) Scheme

Ans:- (c)

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

10) INFALLIBLE

(a) Erring  (b) Untrustworthy  (c) Dubious  (d) Unreliable

Ans:- (a) Erring

11) GATHER

(a) Separate  (b) Suspend  (c) Scatter  (d) Spend

Ans:- (c) Scatter

12) EXALT

(a) Depreciate  (b) Ennoble  (c) Glorify  (d) Simplify

Ans:- (a) Depreciate

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

13) Elderly woman in charge of a girl on social occasions

(a) Spinster  (b) Matron  (c) Chaperon  (d) Chandler

Ans:- (c) Chaperon

14) Land so surrounded by water as to be almost an island

(a) Archipelago  (b) Isthmus  (c) Peninsula  (d) Lagoon

Ans:- (c) Peninsula

15) A Place adjoining kitchen, for washing dishes etc.

(a) Cellar  (b) Wardrobe  (c) Scullery  (d) Pantry

Ans:- (c) Scullery

Direction: In the question, three words are given. They are followed by four words one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.

16) Newspaper, Hoarding, Television

(a) Press  (b) Media  (c) Broadcast  (d) Rumor

Ans:- (b) Broadcast

Direction: In the given question, some statements are followed by one or more inferences. The inference or inferences may be wrongly or correctly drawn. Select one of the alternatives which contains the correctly drawn inference or inferences.Which of the conclusions drawn from the given statements are correct?

Given statements

17)Foreigners in Jordon without a valid work permit will be deported. A few Indian employees in the building industry in Jordon do not possess valid work permits.

Inferences

(1) All Indians engaged in building industry in Jordon will be deported to India.

(2) A few Indians in building industry in Jordon will be deported.

(3) A bulk of Indians in Jordon will be deported to India.

(4) Indian employees in building industry without work permit will be deported from Jordon.

The inferences correctly drawn are

(a) 1 and 3    (b) 3 and 4    (c) 2 and 4   (d) 1 and 2

Ans:- (b) 3 and 4

18)Direction: In the given question,number-pairs are given. Select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) 1234   (b) 2345   (c) 4567   (d) 7896

Ans:- (d)7896

Direction: Find the group of letters from the four alternative which is obtained by applying the same rule to this given word to the right of the sign ::

20) FILM: ADGH:: MILK: ?

(a) ADGF    (b) HDGE   (c) HDGF  (d) HEGF

Ans:- (c)HDGF

21)Directions for next five questions: In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word

(a) Preposterous   (b) Murderous  (c)Onerous  (d) Disasterous

Ans:- (d) Disasterous

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