Sample Paper For VITEEE
We have given Sample Paper For VITEEE for those who appearing in VITEEE Examination. VIT (formerly Vellore Institute of Technology) has been conducting an entrance examination, VITEEE (VIT Engineering Entrance Examination – 2013) for all those candidates seeking admission to B.Tech. degree programs. VIT was the first educational institution in India to get international accreditation for its programs. Based on the performance in VITEEE 2013 entrance exam candidates will be admitted in 1st year of engineering degree programs leading to the award of Bachelor of Engineering (B.E) and Bachelor of Technology (B.Tech)
Sample Paper For VITEEE given as:
VITEEE Sample Paper
The question paper will contain 3 [Three] parts as indicated below. All Questions will be of OBJECTIVE TYPE
PART-I – Physics 40 questions
PART-II – Chemistry 40 questions
PART-III – Mathematics 40 questions
Each question carries 1 mark only.
SAMPLE PAPER FOR VITEEE 2013
Time : 2 hrs 30 min
Full Marks: 120
Part I- Physics
1) Ionization power and penetration range of radioactive radiation increases in the order:
a)α,β,γ and α,β,γ respectively
b) γ, β, α and γ, β, α respectively
c) γ, β, α and α,β,γ respectively
d) α,β,γ and γ, β, α respectively
2) The half-life of a radioactive element is 3.8 days. The fraction left after 19 days will be:
a) 0.124
b) 0.062
c) 0.093
d) 0.031
3) The temperature coefficient of a zener mechanism is:
a) negative
b) positive
c) infinity
d) zero
4) The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 8A when only the carrier is sent, but it increases to 8.93 A when the carrier is modulated by a single sine wave. Find the percentage modulation.
a) 60.1
b) 70.1
c) 80.1
d) 50.1
5) Assuming f to be frequency of first line in Balmer series, the frequency of the immediate next (i.e second) line is :
a) 0.50f
b) 1.35f
c) 2.05f
d) 2.70f
6) A photosensitive material would emit electrons, if excited by photons beyond a threshold. To overcome the threshold, one would increase the :
a) voltage applied to the light source
b) intensity of light
c) wavelength of light
d) frequency of light
7) Two electrons are moving in ooposite direction with speeds 0.8c and 0.4c, where c is the speed of light in vacuum. Then the relative speed is about:
a) 0.4c
b) 0.8c
c) 0.9c
d) 1.2c
8) Radio carbon dating is done by estimating in specimen the:
a) amount of ordinary carbon still present
b) amount of radio carbon still present
c) ratio of amount of 14C6 to 12C6 still present
d) ratio of amount of 12C6 to 14C6 still present
9) Four independent waves are represented by equations:
1) X1 = a1 sin ώt
2) X2 = a1 sin 2ώt
3) X3 = a1 sin ώ1t
4) X4 = a1 sin (ώt + δ)
Interference is possible between waves represented by equations:
a) 3 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
10) Indicate which one of the following statements is not correct:
a) Intensities of reflections from different crystallographic planes are equal
b) According to Bragg’s law higher order of reflections have high θ values for a given wavelength of radiation
c) For a given wavelength of radiation, there is a smallest distance between the crystallographic planes which can be determined
d) Bragg’s law may predict a reflection from a crystallographic plane to be present but it may be absent due to the crystal symmetry
11) The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125/K. At 300 K, its resistance is 1 Ω. The resistance of the wire will be 2 Ω at :
a) 1154 K
b) 1100 K
c) 1400 K
d) 1127 K
12) A uniform copper wire of length 1 m and cross sectional are 5 x 10-7 m2 carries a current of 1A. Assuming that there are 8 x 1028 free electron/m3 in copper, how long will an electron take to drift from one end of the wire to the other?
a) 0.8 x 103 s
b) 1.6 x 103 s
c) 3.2 x 103 s
d) 6.4 x 103 s
13) In Young’s double slit experiment, the interference pattern is found to have an intensity ratio between bright and dark fringes is 9. This implies that :
a) the intensities at the screen due to two slits are 5 units and 4 units respectively
b) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 units and 1 unit respectively
c) the amplitude ratio is 7
d) the amplitude ratio is 6
14) If the coefficient of mutual induction of the primary and secondary coils of an induction coil is 5 H and a current of 10 A is cut off in 5 x 10-4 s, the emf inducted (in volt) in the secondary coil is :
a) 5 x 104
b) 1 x 105
c) 25 x 105
d) 5 x 106
15 ) A car is moving on a horizontal circular path with 10 m/s constant speed. A rigid body is suspended from ceiling of car with a 1 m long light rod, the angle between rod and path is:
a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) zero
16) There is a q charge placed in the centre of a cube, then the emergent flux is :
a) q/6ε0
b) q/8 ε0
c) q/2 ε0
d) q/ ε0
17) In which of the waves the energy is not propagated:
a) EM waves
b) Longitudinal waves
c) Stationary waves
d) Transverse waves
18) Radar waves are sent towards a moving aeroplane and the reflected waves are received. When the aeroplane is moving towards the radar, the wavelength of the wave :
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) Sometimes increases or decreases
19) One electron and one proton is accelerated by equal potential. Ratio in their de-Broglie wavelength is:
a) 1
b) Me/mp
c) √mp/me
d) √me/mp
20) The radius of nucleus is:
a)proportional to its mass number
b) inversely proportional to its mass number
c) proportional to the cube root of its mass number
d) not related to its mass number
21)Rising and setting sun appears to be reddish because:
a) Diffraction sends red rays to earth at these times
b) Scattering due to dust particles and air molecules are responsible
c) Refraction is responsible
d) Polarization is responsible
22)The magnetic moment of the ground state of an atom whose open sub shell is half- filled with five electrons is:
a)√35√µB
b)35 µB
c) 35õB
d) µB √35
23)A voltage of peak value 283 V and varying frequency is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which R= 3Ω, L= 23 mH and C = 400 µF. The frequency (in Hz) of the source at which maximum power is dissipated in the above, is:
a) 51.5
b) 50.7
c) 51.1
d) 50.3
24) The proton of energy 1 MeV describes a circular path in plane at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of 6.28 x 10-4 T. The mass of the proton is 1.7 x 10-27 kg. The cyclotron frequency of the proton is very nearly equal to :
a) 107 Hz
b) 105 Hz
c) 106 Hz
d) 104 Hz
25) The magnetic field at the centre of a loop of a circular wire of radius r carrying current I may be taken as B0.If a particle of charge q moving with speed v passes the centre of a semicircular wire, as shown in figure, along the axis of the wire, as shown in figure, along the axis of the wire, the force on it due to the current is:
a) Zero
b) 1 B0qv
4
c) 1 qB0v
2
d) qB0 v
26) A conductor and a semiconductor are connected in parallel as shown in the figure. At a certain voltage both ammeters register the same current. If the voltage of the DC source is increased then the:
a) ammeter connected to the semiconductor will register higher current than the ammeter connected to the conductor
b) ammeter connected to the conductor will register higher current than the ammeter connected to the semiconductor
c) ammeters connected to both semiconductor and conductor will register the same current
d) ammeters connected to both semiconductor and conductor will register no change in the current
27) A rectangular coil ABCD which is rotated at a constant angular velocity about an horizontal as shown in the figure. The axis of rotation of the coil as well as the magnetic field B are horizontal. Maximum current will flow in the circuit when the plane of the coil is:
a) inclined at 300 to the magnetic field
b) perpendicular to the magnetic field
c) inclined at 450 to the magnetic field
d) parallel to the magnetic field
28) In a uniform circular motion :
a) both acceleration and speed changes
b) both acceleration and speed are constant
c) both acceleration and velocity are constant
d) both acceleration and velocity changes
29) To make the working of a machine, free of magnetism, the cover of this machine must be of:
a) non magnetic substance
b) diamagnetic substance
c) paramagnetic substance
d) ferro magnetic substance
30) In a half wave rectifier circuit, the input signal frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency will be:
a) 25 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 200 Hz
d) 100 Hz
31) Two charges +q and –q are placed at r distance from each other. If one of the charge is stationary and other is rotated around, work done is one circle is:
a) kq2
r2
b) kq
r
c) kq2
r
d) zero
32) A condenser is charged and then battery is removed, a dielectric plate is put between the plates of condenser, then correct statement is:
a) Q constant V and U decreases
b) Q constant V increases U decreases
c) Q increases V decreases U increases
d) None
33) Light wavelength in a glass is 6000 Å and refractive index is 1.5, the wavelength of light is:
a) 12000Å
b) 4000Å
c) 9000 Å
d) 6000 Å
34) Peak value of AC current is 4√2, RMS current is:
a) 2√2
b) 8
c) 4√2
d) 4
35) Twelve wires of each of resistance 6Ω are connected to form a cube as shown in the figure. The current enters at a corner A and leaves at the diagonally opposite corner G. The joint resistance across the corners A and G are:
a) 12Ω
b) 6Ω
c) 3Ω
d) 5Ω
36) Identify the logic gate from the following truth table:
Input output
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
a) NOR gate
b) NOT gate
c) AND gate
d) NAND gate
37) From the figure shown below a series L-C-R circuit connected to a variable frequency 200 V source. L = 5H, C= 80 µF and R= 40 Ω. Then the source frequency which drive the circuit at resonance is:
a)25 Hz
b) 25 Hz
Π
c) 50 Hz
d) 50 Hz
Π
38) Following diffraction pattern was obtained using a diffraction grating using two different wavelengths λ1 and λ2. With the help of the figure identify which is the longer wavelength and their ratios.
a) λ2 is longer than λ1 and the ratio of the longer to the shorter wavelength is 1.5
b) λ1 is longer than λ2 and the ratio of the longer to the shorter wavelength is 1.5
c) λ1 and λ2 are equal and their ratio is 1.0
d) λ2 is longer than λ1 and the ratio of the longer to the shorter wavelength is 2.5
39) Number of electrons in the 92U235 nucleus is:
a) 143
b) 235
c) 92
d) Zero
40) If the intensity and frequency of incident light is doubled then:
a) photo electric current will become is 2 times
b) kinetic energy of the emitted electron will be increased and current will be 2 times
c) kinetic energy of electrons will be 4 times
d) the kinetic energy of electrons will be 2 times
Part II Chemistry
41)An ion leaves its regular site occupy a position in the space between the lattice sites is called:
a) Frenkel defect
b) Schottky defect
c) Impurity defect
d) Vacancy defect
42) The 8:8 type of packing is present in:
a) MgF2
b) CsCl
c) KCl
d) NaCl
43) When a solid melts reversibly:
a) H decreases
b) G increases
c) E decreases
d) S increases
44) Enthalpy is equal to:
a) T2 [ δ(G/T) ]P
δT
b) -T2 [ δ(G/T) ]P
δT
c) T2 [ δ(G/T) ]V
δT
d) T2 [ δ(G/T) ]V
δT
45) Condition of spontaneity in an isothermal process is:
a) ΔA + W < 0
b) ΔG + U 0
d) ΔG – U CH3NH2 > (CH3) 3N
b) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2 NH > CH3 NH2
c) (CH3)3 N > CH3 NH2 = (CH3)2 nh
d) (CH3)2 NH > (CH3)3 N > CH3 NH2
68) When aqueous solution of benzene diazoniumchloride is boiled, the product formed is:
a) C6 H5 CH2 OH
b) C6 H6 +N2
c) C6 H5 COOH
d) C6 H5 OH
69) Carbylamine reaction is given by aliphatic:
a) Primary amine
b) Secondary amine
c) Tertiary amine
d) Quaternary ammonium salt
NH3
70) C6 H5 CHO ?
a) (C6 H5 CHN)2 CH.C6 H5
b) C6 H5 NHCH3
c) C6 H5 CH2 NH2
d) C6 H5 NH C6 H5
71) In TeCl4, the central atom tellurium involves:
a) sp3 hybridisation
b) sp3d hybridization
c) sp3d2 hybridisation
d) dsp2 hybridisation
72) Which of the following compounds volatises on heating?
a)MgCl2
b) HgCl2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3
73) A nuclear reaction of 92U235 with a neutron produces 36Kr90 and two neutrons. Other element produced in this reaction is:
a) 52Te137
b) 55Cs144
c) 56Ba137
d) 56Ba144
74) AgCl dissolves in a solution of NH3 but not in water because:
a) NH3 is a better solvent than H2O
b) Ag+ forms a complex ion with NH3
c) NH3 is a stronger base than H2 O
d) The dipole moment of water is higher than NH3
75) Which of the following is hexadentate ligand?
a) Ethylene diamine
b) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
c) 1, 10-phenanthroline
d) Acetyl acetonate
76) A coordinate bond is a dative covalent bond. Which of the below is true?
a) three atom form bond by sharing their electrons
b) two atom form bond by sharing their electrons
c) two atoms form bond and one of them provides both electrons
d) two atoms form bond by sharing electrons obtained from third atom
77)which of the following complex has zero magnetic moment ?
a)[Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
b) Na3[FeF6]
c) [Cr(H2O)6]SO4
d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
78) The IUPAC name of [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2]2+ is:
a) Bis dichloro (triphenylphosphine) nickel (II)
b) Dichloro bis (triphenylphosphine) nickel(II)
c) Dichloro triphenylphosphine nickel(II)
d) Triphenyl phosphine nickel (II) dichloride
79) among the following the compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured is:
a) K2Cr2O7
b) (NH4)2[TiCl6]
c) VOSO4
d) K3[Cu(CN)4]
80) On an X-ray diffraction photograph the intensity of the spots depends on:
a) neutron density of the atoms/ions
b) electron density of the atoms/ions
c) proton density of the atoms/ions
d) photon density of the atoms/ions
Part III- Mathematics
81) if f:[2,3] R is defined by f(x) = x3 + 3x – 2, then the range f(x) is contained in the interval
a) [1 , 12] b) [12 , 34] c) [35, 50] d) [-12, 12]
82) the number of subsets of {1,2,3,….,9} containing at least one odd number is
a) 324
b) 396
c) 496
d) 512
83) The binary sequence is an array of 0’s and 1’s. The number of n-digit binary sequences which contain even number of 0’s is
a) 2n-1
b) 2n -1
c) 2n-1 -1
d) 2n
84) If x is numerically so small so that x2 and higher powers of x can be neglected then
( 1 + 2x )3/2 . (32 + 5x)-1/5 is approximately equal to
a) 32+31x
64
b) 31 + 32x
64
c) 31 – 32x
64
d) 1 – 2x
64
85) The roots of (x-a)(x-a-1) + (x-a-1)(x-a-2) + (x-a)(x-a-2) = 0 are always
a) are equal
b) imaginary
c) real and distinct
d) rational and equal
86) Let f(x) = x2 + ax + b. If f(x) = 0 has all its roots imaginary, then the roots of f(x) + f`(x) + f“(x) = 0 are
a) real and distinct
b) imaginary
c) equal
d) rational and equal
87) If f(x) = 2×4 –13×2 + ax + b is divisible by x2 – 3x + 2, then (a,b) is equal to
a) (-9, -2)
b) (6, 4)
c) (9,2)
d) (2, 9)
88) if n is an integer which leaves remainder one when divided by three then (1 + √3i)n + (1 – √3i)n equals
a) -2n+1
b) 2n+1
c) – (-2)n
d) -2n
89)The angle between the lines whose direction cosines satisfy the equation l+m+n = 0, l2 + m2 – n2 = 0 is
a) Π/6
b) Π/4
c) Π/3
d) Π/2
90) If X is a binomial variate with the range {0,1,2,3,4,5,6} and P(X=2) = 4P(X=4), then the parameters p of X is
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) ½
d) ¾
91) The period of sin4 x + cos4 x is
a) Π4/2
b) Π2/2
c) Π/4
d) Π/2
92) If cos x ≠ 2 sinx, then the general solution of sin2 x – cos 2x = 2 – sin 2x is
a) n Π + (-1)n Π
2
b) n Π
2
c) (4n + 1) Π
2
d) (2n – 1) Π
93) The area of the triangle formed by x =y =1 =0 and the pair of straight lines x2 – 3xy + 2y2 = 0 is
a) 7/12
b) 5/12
c) 1/12
d) 1/6
94) The area of the circle which touches the lines 4x + 3y = 15 and 4x + 3y =5 is
a) 4 Π
b) 3 Π
c) 2 Π
d) Π
95) The pairs of straight lines x2 -3xy + 2y2 = 0
and x2 – 3xy + 2y2 +x – 2 = 0 form a
a) Square but not rhombus
b) Rhombus
c) Parallelogram
d) Rectangle but not square
96) The equations of a circle which pass through the origin and makes intercepts of lengths 4 and 8 on the x and y axes respectively are
a) x2 + y2 + 4x + 8y =0
b) x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y =0
c) x2 + y2 +8x +16y =0
d) x2 + y2 +x + y = 0
97)The number of normals drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x from the point (1 , 0 ) is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
98) If the circle x2 + y2 = a2 intersects the hyperbola xy =c2 in four points then y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 equals
a) 0
b) c
c) a
d) c4
99) The midpoint of the chord 4x – 3y = 5 of the hyperbola 2×2 – 3y2 = 12 is
a) ( 0, -5/3)
b) ( 2, 1)
c) (5/4 , 0)
d) (11/4 , 2)
100) The perimeter of a triangle with vertices at (1, 0, 0), (0 , 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1) is
a) 3
b) 2
c) 2√2
d) 3√2
101) The radius of the sphere
X2 +y2 + z2 = 12x +4y +3z is
a) 13/2
b) 13
c) 26
d) 52
102) The function f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, a2 = 4ac for the equation ax4 + bx2 + c =0, then all the roots of the equation will be real if:
a) b>0, a0
b) b0 ,c>0
c) b>0, a>0, c>0
d) b>0, a>0, c<0
106) The equation of a directrix of the ellipse x2 + y2
16 25 = 1
a) 3y = 5
b) y= 5
c) 3y = 25
d) y = 3
107) If sin-1 x + sin-1 y = Π/2 then cos-1 x + cos-1 y is equal to:
a) Π/2
b) Π/4
c) Π
d) 3 Π/4
108) If θ is the angle between the lines AB and AC where A,B, and C are three points with coordinates (1,2,-1) , (2, 0 ,3), (3, -1, 2) respectively, then √462 cosθ is equal to:
a) 20
b) 10
c) 30
d) 40
109) Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody else. The total number of hands shakes is 66. The total number of persons in the room is:
a) 9
b) 12
c) 10
d) 14
110) In a group G = {1,3,7,9} under multiplicatiom modulo 10, the inverse of 7 is:
a) 7
b) 3
c) 9
d) 1
111)The simultaneous equations Kx + 2y – z =1, (K-I)y -2z = 2 and (K + 2)z
=3 have only one solution when:
a) K = -2
b) K = -1
c) K = 0
d) K = 1
112) Let A = {1,2,3,…,n} and B ={a,b,c}, then the number of functions from A to B that are onto is :
a) 3n – 2n
b) 3n – 2n – 1
c) 3(2n – 1)
d) 3n – 3(2n – 1)
113) If P(A)= 1/12 P(B) = 1/15, then P(AUB) is equal to :
a) 89/180
b) 90/180
c) 91/180
d) 92/180
114) If the probability density function of a random variable X is f(x) =x/2 in 0<=x1.5| X>1) is equal to:
a) 7/16
b) ¾
c) 7/12
d) 21/64
115) The number of integral solutions of x1 + x2 + x3 =0, with xi >= -5 is:
a) 15C2
b) 16C2
c) 17C2
d) 18C2
116) From a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a court card is :
a) 3/13
b) ¼
c) 4/13
d) 1/13
117) The value of cos2θ + sec2θ is always
a) equal to 1
b) less than 1
c) greater than or equal to 2
d) greater than 1, but less than 2
118)The eccentricity of the conic 9×2 – 16y2 = 144 is
a) 5/4
b) 4/3
c) 4/5
d) 1/7
119) If z1 , z2, z3 are three complex numbers in A.P. then they lie on
a) a circle
b) an ellipse
c) a straight line
d) a parabola
120) In order that the function f(x)= (x+1)cot x is continuous at x =0, f(0) must be defined as
a) 0
b) e
c) 1/e
d) None of the above
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