Sample Paper Of COMEDK Engineering 2013

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COMEDK Engineering Question Bank

Sample Paper Of COMEDK Engineering 2013

PHYSICS:

1. One of the geo-stationary satellites of India is vertically above

A. New Delhi        B. Mumbai          C. Allahabad       D. None of these

 

2. Light of wavelength 2400 x 10-10 m in air will become light of wavelength in glass equal to

A. 1600 x 10-10m           B . 7200 x 10-10 m             C. 1080 x 10-10 m             D. none of these

 

3. The ratio of secondary to primary turns is 4:5. If power input is P, what will be the ratio of power output (neglect all losses) to power input ?

A. 4:9                         B. 9:4                                    C. 5:4                               D. 1:1

 

4. Lenz’s law applies to

A. electrostatics           B. lenses           C. electro-magnetic induction             D. cinema slides

 

5. If a proton and anti-proton come close to each other and annihilate, how much energy will be released?

A. 1.5 x 10-10 J                B. 3 x 10-10 J            C. 4.5 x 10-10J                 D. none of these

 

6. If Sn is doped with As, what will be the result ?

A. n-type             B.  p-type           C . intrinsic             D. none of  these

 

7. Speed of recession of galaxy is proportional to its distance

A. directly                      B. inversely                    C. exponentially         D. none of these

 

8. If a substance goes in a magnetic field and is pushed out of it, what is it ?

A. Paramagnetic                B. Ferromagnetic              C. Diamagnetic               D. Anti ferromagnetic

 

9. Which is not a scalar quantity?

A. Work                B. Torque               C. Power              D. None of these

 

10. Minimum energy required to excite an electron in a Hydrogen atom in ground state is :

A. -13.6 eV          B. 13.6 eV                  C. 10.2 eV              D. 3.4 eV

 

11. If Gravitational Constant is decreasing in time, what will remain unchanged in case of a satellite orbiting around earth ?

A. Time period                  B. Orbiting radius            C. Tangential velocity        D. Angular velocity

 

12. If a transparent medium of refractive index = 1.5 and thickness t = 2.5 x 10-10 m  is inserted in front of one of the slits of Young’s Double Slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the interference pattern ? The distance between the slits is 5.0 x10-10 cm  and that between slits and screen is 100 cm.

A. 5 cm              B. 2.5 cm            C. 0.25 cm            D. 0.1 cm

 

13. How does light propagate in optical fibres?

A. total internal reflection          B .refraction         C .reflection            D. none of these

 

14. Dispersion of light is due to

A. wavelength               B. intensity of light          C. density of medium               D. none of these

15. Which of the following conclusions is correct regarding  a stationary body?

A. No force is acting on the body

B. Vector sum of forces acing on the body is zero

C. The body is in vacuum

D. The forces acting on the body do not constitute a couple

 

16. Energy released in stars is due to

A. Fission             B. Fusion              C. Combustion                D. Chemical reaction

 

17. 13 days is the half-life period of a sample. After how many days, the sample will become 1/16th of the original substance ?

A. 52               B. 3.8                C. 3               D. none of these

 

18. Absolute zero is the temperature at which

A. water solidifies       B. all gases become liquid      C. motion of molecules becomes minimum         D.everything solidifies

19. Motion of liquid in a tube is described by

A. Bernaulli’s Theorem       B. Poiseuille Equation       C. Stoke’s Law       D.Archimedes Principle

 

20. Molecular motion shows itself as

A. Temperature           B. Internal Energy             C.Friction           D.Viscosity

 

21. Energy bands in solids are a consequence of

A. Ohm’s Law  B. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle C. Bohr’s Theory  D. Heissenberg’s Uncertainty Principle

 

22. A boy of mass M stands on the floor of an elevator moving downwards with an acceleration

a which is less than g. The force exerted by the boy on the floor of the elevator is

A. Mg x Ma               B. g+a                     C. Mg – Ma            D. Mg + Ma

 

23. A body A of mass m1 exerts a force on another body B of mass m2. If the acceleration of B be  a2, then the acceleration (in magnitude ) of A is

A. m2/m1(a2)             B. m1m2 a2           C. m1/m2 (a2)             D. (m1 + m2) a2

 

23. What does not change when sound enters from one medium to another ?

A. Wavelength                B. Speed              C. Frequency        D. none of these

 

24. Resolving power of a microscope depends upon

A. wavelength of light used, directly           B. wavelength of light used, inversely  C. frequency of light used    D. focal length of objective

 

25. An astronaut of weight Mg is in a rocket accelerating upward with an acceleration of 4g. The apparent weight of the astronaut will be

A. 5Kg                 B. 4Kg                C. Mg              D. zero

 

26. One proton beam enters a magnetic field of 10-4 m/s normally, sp. charge = 1011 C/kg,

velocity = 109 m/s. What is the radius of the circle describe by it ?

A. 0.1 m              B. 100 m              C. 10 m               D. none of these

 

27. If a carnot engine is working with source temperature equal to 227°C and its sink temperature is at 27°C, its efficiency will be

A. 20%              B. 10%                C. 67%               D. 50%

28. If the frequency of an oscillating particle is n, then the frequency of oscillation of its potential energy is

A. n                 B.             2n                       C. n/2                    D. 4n

29. If an electron oscillates at a frequency of 1 GHz, it gives :

A. X-rays          B. Micro-waves        C. Infra-red rays          D. None of these

30. Earth’s atmosphere is richest in

A. Ultra-violet rays       B. Infra-red rays         C. X-rays         D. Micro-waves

31. Cathode rays consist of

A. Photons         B. Electrons       C. Protons          D.alpha -particles

32. A body of mass m1 is moving with a velocity V. It collides with another stationary body of mass m2. They get embedded. At the point of collision, the velocity of the system

A. increases       B. decreases but does not become zero        C. remains same      D. becomes zero

33. One projectile moving with velocity V in space, gets burst into 2 parts of masses in the ratio

1:2. The smaller part becomes stationary. What is the velocity of the other part ?

A. 4V            B. V                C. 4V/3                 D. 2V/3

34. A thief steals a box of weight W & jumps from the third floor of a building. During jump, he experiences a weight of

A. W              B. 3W            C. 1.5W             D. zero

35. Two electron beams are moving parallel in space but in opposite directions; then

A. they will attract each other    B. they will repel each other  C. no interaction will take place  D.none of these

36. Two wires with resistances R and 3R are connected in parallel, the ratio of heat generated in 2R and R is

A.  1 : 3              B. 2 : 1              C. 1 : 4              D. 4 : 1

37. A wire is drawn such that its radius changes from r to 2r, the new resistance is

A. 2 times                          B. 4 times                         C. 8 times   D. 1/16 times

38. In solids, inter-atomic forces are

A. totally repulsive      B. totally attractive      C. combination of (a) and (b)    D. none of these

39.When horse starts running all of a sudden, the rider on the horse back falls backward because

A. he is taken aback

B. he is afraid

C. due to inertia of rest, the upper part of his body remains at rest

D. due to inertia of motion, the lower part of his body comes in motion

40.Planetary system in the solar system describes

A. conservation of energy   B. conservation of linear momentum  C. conservation of angular momentum D. none of these

                                            CHEMISTRY:

1. Gamma rays are

A. high energy electrons   B. low energy electrons  C. high energy electro-magnetic waves

D. high energy positrons

2. Which is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?

A. Fe           B. Al            C. Ca            D. Na

3. Which one does not give a precipitate with excess of NaOH?

A. ZnSO4            B. FeSO4            C. AgNO3         D. HgCl2

4. What volume of CO2 will be liberated at NTP of 12 gm of carbon is burnt in excess of oxygen?

A. 11.2 litres       B. 22.4 litres         C. 2.24 litres        D. 1.12 litres

5. Which base is found only in nucleotides of RNA?

A. Adenine         B. Uracil            C. Guanine         D. Cytosine

6. Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of

A. Vitamin B6            B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C   D. Vitamin D

7. A hydrocarbon has carbon and hydrogen. Its molecular weight is 28. Its possible formula would be

A. C3H6              B. C2H4             C. CH4               D. CH8

 8. The first Noble Prize in chemistry was given to

A. Faraday         B. Cnrizzaro       C. Mendeleevs               D. Moseley

9. Four different colloids have the following gold number. Which one has its most effective action?

A. 10              B. 30           C. 20               D. 40

10. Which is an example of thermosetting polymer?

A. Polythene              B. PVC              C. Neoprene           D. Bakelite

11. The number of unpaired electrons in ferrous ion is

A. 3               B. 2              C. 4               D. 5

12. Strongest reducing agent is

A. K                  B. Mg              C. Al              D. Ba

13. Which of the following is man-made element?

A. Ra              B. U              C. Np              D. C – 4

14. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Boiling point of alkylhalide is greater than its  corresponding alkane

B. In water, solubility of CH3OH > C2H5OH >C6H5OH

C. Aniline is a weaker base than NH3

D. All of the above

15. Which amine of the following will not answer Carbylamine reaction?

A. Ethylamine             B. Methylamine          C. Dimethylamine       D. Phenylamine

16. Tollen’s reagent can be used to detect

A. (CH3)2 – CHOH       B. CH3COCH3             C. CH3CH2CHO         D. CH3OCH3

17. Glycerol on heating with Potassium bisulphate yields

A. Acetone      B. Glyceraldehyde      C. Acrolein      D. Propanol

18. Salicylic acid on heating with sodalime gives

A. Benzene          B. Calcium salicylate       C. Benzoic acid            D. Phenol

19. Which one of the following will not give iodoform test?

A. Ethanol            B.  Ethanal           C.  2-propanone            D. None of these

20. The rusting of iron is catalysed by

A. Fe                B. O2                C. Zn             D. H+

21. 100 ml of a liquid A was mixed with 25 ml of a liquid B to give non-ideal solution of A-B mixture. The volume of this mixture will be

A. 75 ml          B. 125 ml exact  C. fluctuating between 75 ml and 125 ml   D. close to 125 ml but not to exceed 125 ml

22. IUPAC name of a compound having the formula (CH3)3 C – CH =CH2 is

A. 3, 3 – dimethyl – l – butane    B. 1, 1 – dimethyl – 3 – butene  C. 1,1, 1 – dimethyl – 2 – propene

D.3, 3, 3 – dimethyl – 1 – l propene

23. The major components of brass are

A. Zn and Sn            B. Cu and Zn                 C. Fe and Ni                  D. Zn and Fe

24. Lunar castic is

A. Silver Chloride          B. Silver Nitrate             C. Sodium Hydroxide D. Potassium Nitrate

25. When hot iron is exposed in hot water vapour, the compound formed is

A. FeO                             B. Fe2O4                         C. Fe3O4                         D. Fe2 (OH)2

26. Which of the following halide is not oxidised by MnO2?

A. F                                 B. Cl –                             C. Br –                             D. I –

27. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is

A. ns2np3                        B.ns2np4                         C. ns2np5                        D. ns2np6

28. Shape of CO2 is

A. tetrahedral                 B. trigonal                      C. bent                             D. linear

29. The catalyst used in the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process is

A. Al2O3                         B. Cr2O3                         C. V2O5                            D. MnO2

30. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of H2SO4 and  excess of NaOH, the ratio of volumes of H2 evolved is

A. 1 : 1            B. 1 : 2            C. 2 : 1            D. 9 : 4

31. Calcium does not combine directly with

A. oxygen       B. nitrogen      C. hydrogen    D. carbon

32. Carbon differs from other elements of its sub-group due to

A. availability of d-orbitals for bonding          B. its limitation to a co-ordination number four

C. its tendency to catenate                           D. its unique ability to form multiple bonds

33. Calcium does not combine directly with

A. oxygen       B. nitrogen      C. hydrogen    D. carbon

34. Carbon differs from other elements of its sub-group due to

A. availability of d-orbitals for bonding         B. its limitation to a co-ordination number four

C. its tendency to catenate                          D. its unique ability to form multiple bonds

35.Keeping in view the periodic law and the periodic table, suggest which of the following elements should have the maximum electronegative character?

A. Oxygen             B. Nitrogen                 C. Fluorine         D. Astatine

                                         MATHEMATICS:

1.The equation of the circle whose diameter lies on 2x + 3y = 3 and 16x – y = 4 and which passes through (4, 6) is

A. x2 + y2 = 40            B. 5(x2+ y2) – 4x – 8y = 200   C. x2 + y2 – 4x – 8y = 200         D. 5(x2 + y2)   -3x-8y = 200

2. A stick of length ‘l’ rests against the floor and a wall of a room. If the stick begins to slide on the floor, then the locus of its middle point is

A. an ellipse              B. a parabola     C. a circle      D. a straight line

3.The straight line 5x + 4y = 0 passes through the point of intersection of the lines

A. x + y – 2 = 0, 3x + 4y – 7 = 0          B. x – y = 0, x + y = 0         C. x + 2y – 10 = 0, 2x + y + 5 = 0

D. none of the above

4.The number of common tangents of the circles x2 + y2 – 2x – 1 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 2y – 7 = 0 is

A. 4                                 B. 1                                  C. 3                                 D. 2

5.If the 10th term of a G.P. is 9 and 4th term is 4, then its 7th  term is

A. 9/4             B. 4/9              C. 6     D. 36

6. The number of straight lines that can be drawn out of 10 points of which 7 are collinear is

A. 23            B. 21               C. 25               D. 24

7. The 9th term of an A.P. is 499 and 499th term is 9. The term which is equal to zero is

A. 501th             B. 502th          C. 500th          D. none of the above

8. If AB = A and BA = B, then B2 is equal to

A. B            B. A    C. 1     D. 0

9. A person draws a card from a pack of 52 playing cards, replaces it and shuffles the pack. He continues doing this until he draws a spade, the chance that he will fail in the first two draws is

A. 1/16             B. 9/16            C. 9/64            D. 1/64

10. In tossing 10 coins, the probability of getting exactly 5 heads is

A. 193/256            B. 9/128          C. 1/2 D. 63/256

11. Four tickets marked 00, 01, 10, 11 respectively are placed in a bag. A ticket is drawn at random five times, being replaced each time, the probability that the sum of the numbers on tickets  thus drawn is 23, is

A. 100/256        B.231/256      C.25/256    D. none of the above

12. The equation of the straight line which is perpendicular to y = x and passes through (3, 2) will be given by

A. x – y = 5            B. x + y = 5     C. x + y = 1     D. x – y = 1

13. If the imaginary part of (2z + 1)/(iz + 1) is – 2, then the locus of the point representing z in the complex plane is

A. a circle             B. a straight line          C. a parabola   D. none of the above

14. The sum of 40 terms of an A.P. whose first term is 2 and common difference 4, will be

A. 3200          B. 1600           C. 200             D. 2800

15. If a, b, c are in A.P., then a/bc, 1/c, 2/b are in

A. A.P.            B. G.P.            C. H.P.            D. none of the above

16. The term independent of x in [x2 + (1/x2)] is

A. 1                   B. -1                C. 48                D. none of the above

17. The equation of a line through (2, -3) parallel to y-axis is

A. y = -3                     B. y = 2                  C. x = 2                  D. x = 3

18. The last digit of 7300 is-

A.7                             B.   9                      C. 1                       D.3

19.The circle x2+y2-8x+4y+4=0 touches-

A. x axis          B. y-axis          C. both axes        D. neither x axis nor y-axis

20.If  (0,6)  and (0,3) are respectively the vertex and focus of a parabola then its equation is-

A.x2+12y=72     B. x2-12y=72     C. y2-12x=72    D.y2+12x=72

21.The maximum of the function 3cox-4sinx is-

A.2                    B. 3                   C. 4                   D. 5

22.How many numbers of 6 digits can be formed from the digits of the number 112233?

A.30                  B. 60                 C. 90                   D. 120

23.If ax2-y2+4x-y=0 represents a pair of lines then a=

A.-16                B. 16                 C. 4                      D. -4

24.If a tangent to the curve y=6x-x2 is parallel to the line 4x-2y-1=0, then the point of tangency on the curve is-

A.(2,8)              B. (8,2)              C.(6,-1)               D.(4,2)

25. Equation of the straight lines making equal intercepts on the axes and passing through the point (2,4) is-

A.4x-y-4=0        B.2x+y-8=0         C. x+y-6=0          D.x+2y-10=0

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10 Responses to Sample Paper Of COMEDK Engineering 2013

  1. Sankarshana says:

    What’s the difference between comedk uget and uni-gauge…also how important is this ranking to get into aeronautical engineering in reputed colleges

  2. Soma Yuktha says:

    I request to provide key to the sample papers and other tests as well kindly provide it

  3. RAKESH GUPTA INDOO DEVI says:

    the ratio of primary to secondary is 9:4 if power input is p.what will be the ratio of power output to the power input?

  4. The pattern of the questions is objective type. The kind of questions asked, are very basic for a PCM student & are of vital importance for competitive exams.

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