AIIMS Entrance Exam Sample Paper with answers

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AIIMS Entrance Exam Sample Paper with answers :-

AIIMS Entrance Exam stands for All India Institute of Medical Sciences Entrance Exam. This exam is conducted by All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi for providing admission to undergraduate & postgraduate courses.

Two sets of AIIMS Entrance Exam Sample Paper with answers are given here:-

Sample paper for Aiims entrance exam

Here we have carved out few best questions for Entrance Exam of AIIMS , which may help students to prepare better for Aiims like other medical exams. AIIMS exams are considered to be most difficult medical exam conducted in India. To know more about AIIMS exams. you can also try our online test for AIIMS Medical test

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SET – 1 :-

1. What is “cardiac polyp”

a. Acute infarct

b. Cardiac aneurysm

c. Benign tumour

d. Fibrinous clot in the chamber

2. Condition promoting adipocere formation

a. Dry and hot

b. Hot and humid

c. Dry & optimum

d. Moist & optimum

3. Enlarged pulsating liver with ascites occurs in:

a. Mitral regurgitation

b. Tricuspid regurgitation

c. CCF

d. AR

4. In civil negligence, onus of proof is with

a. Judicial first degree magistrate

b. Police not below the level of sub inspector

c. Doctor

d. Patient

5. According to European laryngeal Society, Subligamentous cordectomy is classified as

a. Type I

b. Type II

c. Type III

d. Type IV

6. The technique of laproscopic cholecystectomy was first described by?

a. Erich Muhe

b. Phillip Moure

c. Lanchenback

d. Eddie Reddick

7. Percutaneous vertebroplasty is indicated in all except

a. Tuberculosis

b. Metastasis

c. Osteoporosis

d. Hemangioma

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8. Degrees awarded by Indian universities are mentioned in

a. Schedule I of MCI act

b. Schedule II of MCI act

c. Part 1 of schedule III

d. Part 2 of schedule III

9. During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach 

a. Anterior

b. Posterior

c. Lateral

d. Antero-lateral

10. A 30 yr old lady P2L 0 with menorrhagia. What is the treatment of choice

a. Mirena

c. b. Combined OCP’s

d. Trans cervical resection of endometria (TCRE)

e. Hysterectomy

11. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow in the portal vein. Portal flow is maximally reduced by

a. ether

b. halothane

c.  isoflurane

d. enflurane

12. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?

a.  IV regional anaesthesia

b.  Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach

c. Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach

d.  Brachial plexus block by axillary approach

13. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia

a. Procaine

b. Prilocaine

c. Etiodicaine

d. Ropivacaine

14. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:

a. Cricothyroid

b. Thyrohyoid

c. Hyoepiglottie

d. Cricotracheal

15. Paneth cells true is

a. Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum

b. High zine content

c. Foamy cytoplasm

d. Numerous lysozyme granules

16. True about prostatic urethra are all except:

a. Trapezoid in cross section

b. Presence of verumontanum

c. Openings of prostatic ducts

d. Contains urethral crest

17. Cranial nerve not carrying parasympathetic fibres

a. Fourth

b. Seventh

c. Third

d. Ninth

18. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of

a. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

b. Palatine division of maxillary nerve

c. Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve

d. Inferior alveolar nerve

19. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?

a. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of the patella

b. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella

c. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medical border of patella

d. No change in position

20. Coeliac plexus is located

a. Anterolateral & around the aorta

b.  Posterolateral & around the aorta

c. Anteromedical to lumbar sympathetic chain

d. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

21. Noble Prize Recently Given For The Discovery Of:

a. Rnai

b. Beta Transcription Factor

c. Mitochondrial Dna

d. Lipoxins

22. Semen Stains On Clothes Identified By:

a. Spectrometry

b. Uv

c. Infrared Rays

d. Magnifying Lens

23. Section 377 Deals With:

a. Unnatural Offences

b. Rape

c. Incest

d. Adultary

24. Lipid Detection In Frozen Sample With:

a. Oil Red O

b. Mucicaramine

c. Pas

d. N/A

25. Odd’s Ratio/Confidence 95% Limits (Table) In Risk Factor Association:

a.  Has Highest Risk Ass

b.  Has Highest

c.  Has Highest

d. All Have Equal Association

e. None of these

26. Ppv Value:

a. 54 %

b. 47%

c. 17%

d. 97%

27. Drug Addicts Iv Most Commonly Asss With Which Bacteria:

a. Kleibsella

b. Staph Aureus

c. Pseudomonas

d. E Coli

28. Recall Bias Most Commonly Ass Which Study Design:

a. Case Control

b. Cohort

c. Cohort-Case Control

d. Croos Sectional Study

29. Hyperkalemia Without Ecg Changes Treated With Al Except:

a. Calcium Gluconate

b. Salbutamol

c. Na Bicarbonate

d. Insulin With Dextrose

30. Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis Ass With:

a. Hypokalemic Alkalosis

b. Hyperkalemic Alkalosis

c. Hypokalemic Acidosis

d. Hyperkalemic Acidosis

31. Best Marker For Dyslipidemia

a. Tg And Cholesterol

b. ldl/Hdl Ratio

c. Ldl/Cholesterol

d. Apo a¹

32. Radiation Induced Necrosis Of Brain-Most Sensitive:

a. Ct

b. Mri

c. Pet

d. Biopsy

33. Defective Dna Repair Is Ass E

a. Xeroderma Pigmentosum

b. Albinism

c. N/A

d. N/A

34. Treatment Of Choice In Genital Wart In Pregnancy

a. Salicylic Acid With Lactic Acid Solution

b. Podophylotoxin

c. Imiqimod

d. Cryotherapy

35. True In Asthma.

a. Increased Frc Reduced Residual Volume

b. Increased Frc Incrased Residual Vol

c. Reduced Frc Reduced Residual Volume

d. Reduced Frc Incrased Residual Vol

36. Which Of Them Is Not A Personality Disorder?

a. Sensation

b. Seeking

c. Neurotism

d. Pleasure Problem

37. Nitrates Not Used In

a. Chf

b. Cyanide Poisoning

c. Esophageal Spasm

d. Renal Colic

38. Third Nerve Palsy With Normal Pupillary Reaction.

a. Aneurism

b. Diabetes

c. Trauma

d. Raised Ict

39. Lynch Syndrome Associatd Wd?

a. Breast, Colon, Ovary

b. Breast, Endomet, Ovary

c. Breast, Colon, Endomet

d. Colon, Endomet, Ovary

40. Head Ache With Bitemporal Hemianopia With 6/6 Vision… Seen With

a. N/A

b. Trauma

c. Chiasmal Lesions

d.B/L Cavernous Lesions

41. Weakest Area Of Sclera …

a. Behind Rectus Insertion

b. Limbus

c. Equator

d. Infront Of Rectus

42. Sumthng Dat Is Consistent, ____And Subject To Change?

a. Knowledge

b. Cultural Belief

c. Attitude

d. Practise

43. Not Felt With P/R Examination

a. Anorectal Ring

b. Prostate

c. Ureter

d. Bulb Of Penis

44. Injury To Head Of Fibula, All Are Involved Except:

a. Common Peroneal N

b. Superficial Peroneal

c. Anterior Tibial

d. Tibial

45. Deep Peronela Nerve Sensory Innervation

a. 1st Web Space

b. 5th Web Space

c. Antero Lateral Dorsum Of Foot

d. Lateral Part Of Leg

46. History Of Nasal Congestion And Pain Around Medial Canthus With Rigt Sided Proptosis, Chemosis Defective Right Gaze… Fever…

a. Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

b. Orbital Cellulitis

c. Ethmoid Sinusitis

d. Orbital Apex Synd

47. A Child Presents With Periosteal Reaction, Fever, Esr Raised After 1 Month Trauma. Inv Of Choice

a. Mri

b. Pet

c. Ct Scan

d. Core Biopsy

48. Transtentorial Herniation Results In All Except

a. Ipsilateral Hemiparesis

b. Ipsilateral Oculomotor Paresis

c. Decerbration

d. Cheyne Stokes Resp

49. Drug Not Used In Chf.

a. Ntg

b. Spironolactone

c. Nisiritide

d. Trimetazidine

50. Sudden Thunderclap Headache, Unconsciousness, Ipsilateral, Dilated Pupil Due to

a. Acute Ischemia Of Midbrain

b. Acute Aneurysmal Hemorrhage

c. Menngitis

d. Brain Stem Encephalitis

SET – 2 : –

1. Phosphorlase B Is Inhibited By?

a. Atp

b. Amp

c. Glucose

d. Calcium

2. In Metabolism Of Xenobiotics All Of The Followin Reactions Occour In Phase One Except?

a. Conjugation

b. Reduction

c. Hydrolysis

d. Oxidation

3. Which Is Not A Second Messenger?

a. Amp

b. Guanyl Cyclase

c. Dag

d. Ip 3

4. Structure Of Proteins Can Be Determined By All Except?

a. Mass Spectrometry

b. Nmr Spectrometry

c. Hplc

d. N/A

5. Functions Of Thiamine?

a. Co Enzyme Of Pyruvate Dehydrogenase And Alpha Keto Dehydrogenase

b. Co Enzyme Of Trans Ketolase

c. N/A

d. N/A

6. Replacin Alanine By Which Amino Acid Will Increase The Absorbance Of Proteins At 280nm?

a. Leucine

b. Tryptophan

c. Proline

d. Arginine

7. Thalidomide Is Not Used In?

a. Hiv Related Neuropathy

b. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum

c. Aphthous Ulcer

d. Bechets Ds

8. Drugs Used For Detrusor Instability Are All Except?

a. Flavoxate

b. Solifenacin

c. Duloxetine

d. Tiaperetide

9. Which Is Not An Alkylating Agent?

a. Cyclophosphamide

b. Busulphan

c. 5 fu

d. Melphalan

10. Ifosfamide Belongs To Which Class?

a. Alkylating Agent

b. Anti Metabolite

c. Taxanes

d. Antibiotics

11. Doc For Refractory Histiocytosis?

a. Cladarabine

b. Fludarabine

c. Cytosine Arabinoside

d. High Dose Methotrexate

12. Tnf Alpha Inhibitors Are Contraindicated In?

a. Sle

b. Seronegative Spondyloarthritis

c. Psoriatic Arthritis

d. Rheumatoid Arthritis

13. Reflex hallucinations occurs in?

a. Kinesthesia

b. Paraesthesia

c. Hyperaesthesia

d. Synaesthesia

14. Local Scarring and limb hypoplasia in a newborn is seen due to?

a. Toxoplasma

b. T pallidum

c. Varicella

d. Herpes

15. False regarding Pioglitazone

a. Activates PPAR-Gamma

b. Acts by inducing transcription of gene that catabolize carbohydrate & lipid metabolism in the absence of insulin

c. Contra indicated in diastolic heart dysfunction

d. Metabolized in liver

16. Acetyl CoA cannot be converted directly into?

a. Glucose

b. Ketone bodies

c. Fatty acids

d. Cholesterol

17. Which is NOT true about angiography?

a. Common femoral artery is routinely catheterised

b. Single wall puncture is indicated in those with normal coagulation profile

c. Femoral artery is catheterised at medial third of femoral head

d. Seldinger technique is used both for femoral artery and vein

18. Retraction of scapula is not done by

a. Rhomboidius major

b. Rhomboidius minor

c. Trapezius

d. Levator scapulae

19. Upper limb weight is transmitted to axial skeleton by all except?

a. Coracoacromial ligament

b. Claviculoclavicular [interclavicular] ligament

c. Costoclavicular ligament

d. Acromioclavicular ligament

20. Net protein utilization all except

a. Defined as nitrogen retained by total nitrogen consumed x 100

b. Good for estimating protein quality

c. Both

d. None

21. Hpv Vaccine Is

a. Monovalent

b. Bivalent

c. Quadrivalant

d. Bivalant And Quadrivalant

22. Hirschprug Disease Is Due To

a. Loss Of Ganglion Cells In Sympathetic Chain

b. Failure Of Migration Of Neural Crest Cells From Cranial To Caudal Direction

c. Atrophy Of Longitudinal Muscles

23. Hatters Shake Is Due To

a. Mercury

b. Lead

c. Arsenic

d. Copper

24. A Patient With Non-United Lower ¼ Tibia, Multiple Discharging Sinuses, Various Puckered Scars, Wat To B Done?

a. Illizarov Fixator

b. External Fixator

c. Plating

d. Nailing

25. Blow Out Fracture Of Orbit Leads To Fracture In

a. Posterior Wall Of Floor Of Orbit

b. Roof Of Orbit

c. Medial Wall Of Orbit

d. Medial Part Of Floor Of Orbit

26. Most Useful Inveestigation In Suspected Ectopic Pregnancy Is

a. Transvaginal Usg

b. Culdocentesis

c. Serial Hcg Estimation

d. MRI

27. A 10 Yr Old Boy With Scalp Boggy Swelling With Multipl Sinuses, Easy Pluckable Hair, Lymph Nodes Enlarged In Occipital Region, Wat To B Done 4 Diagnosis?

a. Biopsy

b. Culture

c. Koh Med

d. Koh Mount

28. Progesterone Of Choice In Emergency Contraception

a. Norgesterone

b. Micronised Progesterone

c. Levonorgesterol

d. Dmpa

29. A 35 Year Old Lady With Post Coital Bleeding Management Is

a. Clinical Examination And Pap Smear

b. Visual Examination With Lugol Iodine

c. Visual Examination With Acetic Acid

d. N/A

30. Call Exner Bodies Are Seen In

a. Granulosa Cell Tumour

b. Yolk Sac Tumor

c. N/A

d. N/A

31. Incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in:

a. Accidents

b. Suicides

c. Homicides

d. Postmortem artifact

32. Destructive power of bullet is determined by:

a. Weight of bullet

b. Shape of bullet

c. Size of bullet

d. Velocity of bullet

33. Causes of primary amenorrhea are all except

a. Rokitansky syndrome

b. Sheehan syndrome

c. Kollman syndrome

d. Turner syndrome

34. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be

a. Galactorrhoea

b. Diabetes insipidus

c. Loss of menstruation

d. Cushing’s syndrome

35. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?

a. Phosphatidylesterase

b. Acetyl cholinesterase

c. Pseudocholine esterase

d. Butyrylcholine esterase

36. A 35 yr old P3 + 0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be

a. Cryosurgery

b. Conization

c. LEEP

d. Hysterectomy

37. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non-complaint. Baby was born with hydrocephalous and intracerebral calcification. Which of the these is likely cause?

a. Toxoplasmosis

b. CMV

c. Cryptococcus

d. Rubella

38. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?

a. Tranexamic acid

b. Ethamylate

c. Combined OCP

d. Progesterone

39. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are all except:

a. Corticosteroids

b. Sulphasalazine

c. Methotrexate

d. Hydroxychloroquine

40. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except

a. Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins

b. Mentoanterior

c. Extended breech

d. Dichorionic twins with first vertex & second breech

41. A Patient with cystic fibrosis develops acute exacerbation of respiratory tract infection/pneumonia & admitted to hospital. Which of the following will be cultured

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (non mucoid strain)

b. Burkholderia capecia

c. Aeromonas

d. Plesiomonas

42. Hyperkalemia with tall peaked waves on ECG. Fastest acting drug for lowering S. Potassium concentration

a. Calcium gluconate

b. Glucose plus insulin

c. Sodium bicarbonate

d. Calcium carbonate

43. Radiological features of L ventricular failure are all except 

a. Kerley B lines

b. Cardiomegaly

c. Oligemic lung fields

d. Increased flow in Upper lobe veins

44. A 10 month old baby previously normal becomes unconscious on crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose was 30Mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis

a. 21 hydroxylase deficiency

b. Familial glucocorticoid deficiency

c. Hyperinsulism

d. Cushings syndrome

45. In case of Renal cell carcinoma following are seen except

a. Polycythemia

b. Cushings syndrome

c. Malignant hypertention

d. Amyloidosis

46. CSF pressure primarily determined by?

a. CSF production

b. CSF reabsorption

c. CNS blood flow

d. Blood pressure

47. Most important prognostic factor for colorectal carcinoma?

a. Tumor size & characteristics

b. Tumor site

c. LN status

d. Vascular invasion

48. Investigation Of Choice For Recurrent GIST?

a. MRI

b. PET

c. USG

d. MIBG

49. Which Is Not A Pure Beta Particle Emitter?

a. Samarium 135

b. Strontium 89

c. Yttrium 90

d. Phosphorus 32

50. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora?

a. Pectin

b. Lignin

c. Starch

d. Glucose

ANSWERS:

1)      Answer: d

2)      Answer: b

3)      Answer: b

4)      Answer: d

5)      Answer: b

6)      Answer: a

7)      Answer: n/a

8)      Answer: a

9)      Answer: b

10)   Answer: b

11)   Answer: b

12)   Answer: a

13)   Answer: b

14)   Answer: a

15)   Answer: a

16)   Answer: a

17)   Answer: a

18)   Answer: n/a

19)   Answer: b

20)   Answer: c

21)   Answer: a

22)   Answer: c

23)   Answer: a

24)   Answer: a

25)   Answer: e

26)   Answer: a

27)   Answer: b

28)   Answer: a

29)   Answer: a

30)   Answer: a

31)   Answer: b

32)   Answer: c

33)   Answer: a

34)   Answer: d

35)   Answer: a

36)   Answer: d

37)   Answer: d

38)   Answer: b

39)   Answer: b

40)   Answer: c

41)   Answer: a

42)   Answer: b

43)   Answer: c

44)   Answer: d

45)   Answer: a

46)   Answer: b

47)   Answer: d

48)   Answer: a

49)   Answer: d

50)   Answer: a

SET-2

1)      Answer: c

2)      Answer: a

3)      Answer: b

4)      Answer: c

5)      Answer: a

6)      Answer: b

7)      Answer: a

8)      Answer: c

9)      Answer: c

10)   Answer: a

11)   Answer: d

12)   Answer: a

13)   Answer: d

14)   Answer: c

15)   Answer: b

16)   Answer: a

17)   Answer: n/a

18)   Answer: d

19)   Answer: d

20)   Answer: n/a

21)   Answer: c

22)   Answer: b

23)   Answer: a

24)   Answer: a

25)   Answer: b

26)   Answer: a

27)    Answer: d

28)   Answer: c

29)   Answer: n/a

30)   Answer: a

31)   Answer: c

32)   Answer: d

33)   Answer: b

34)   Answer: c

35)   Answer: b

36)   Answer: c

37)   Answer: a

38)    Answer: b

39)   Answer: c

40)   Answer: a

41)   Answer: b

42)    Answer: b

43)   Answer: c

44)   Answer: b

45)   Answer: b

46)   Answer: b

47)   Answer: a

48)   Answer: b

49)   Answer: a

50)   Answer: b

AIIMS Entrance Exam Sample Paper Set 1AIIMS Entrance Exam Sample Paper Set 2solved sample papers of AIIMS

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