Important Question of Lawcet
1. A is at work with a hatchet in his hand; the head of the hatchet flies off and kills a man who is standing by. What offence is committed by A in this situation?
(a) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(b) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) A has committed no offence as it was an accident
(d) A has committed no offence as use of hatchet was a necessity of his livelihood
2. Defense of insanity is developed on which of the following condition?
(b) Below 7 years
(c) Irresistible impulse
(d) Below 12 years
3. The Courts have evolved some tests to determine the stage, at what stage an act or a series of acts done towards the commission of the intended offence would become an attempt. Identify which one of the following test is not correct out of these test?
(a) Proximity test
(b) Impossiblity test
(c) Locus standi test
(d) Social danger test
4. When law makes out a contract for parties although no contract might have been made by the parties, what you call such a contract ?
(a) Contract of frustration
(c) Unenforceable agreement
(d) Contract by obligation
5. Regarding Section 34 and 149 of the Indian Penal Code which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Common intention and common object are the same
(b) Both are district offences in themselves
(c) Section 34 enunciates a mere principle of liability, and creates no offence while Section 149 creates a specific offence
(d) Sections 34 and 149 are mutually helping Sections
6. W instigates Y to murder Z. Y in quest of the instigation hits Z with knife who recovers from the wound. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Y is liable for attempt to murder and W is liable for abetment of attempt to murder
(b) Y is guilty of attempt to murder and W is guilty of abetment of murder
(c) Y is guilty of attempt to murder and W is guilty of no offence
(d) W is guilty of attempt to murder and Y is guilty of no offence
7. What is the necessary condition to be proved, to constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy ?
(a) There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons
(b) There must be an agreement of two or more persons to do an illegal act or to do a legal act by illegal means
(c) A person does an illegal act with the help of two or more persons
(d) Two or more persons commit a crime on a sudden provocation with guilty mind
8. X is a doctor, he knows that Y is suffering from enlarged spleen. He gives Y a first blow which ruptures the spleen and causes his death. X being a doctor knows that a moderate blow on that region would rupture the spleen and is likely to cause V’s death. What is X guilty of and what charges he will face?
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as X knew that his act is likely to cause death
‘(b) Murder as X knew that his act is likely to cause death of Y to whom the injury was inflicted
(c) No offence as the below would not have caused death of a normal man in ordinary circumstances of the case
(d) An offence other than murder or culpable homicide not amounting to murder
9. Criminal misappropriation of property is caused by which of the following element?
1. Movable property belonging to a person other than the accused.
2. Any property belonging to a person other than the accused.
3. The accused must have misappropriated the property to his own use.
4. There must be dishonest intention on the part of the accused.
10. A lady on a railway station wishing to get a railway ticket, find crowd at the ticket window
at the station, she asked X, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him over the money for the same. X took the money and instead of getting the ticket ran away with the money. What offence has been committed by X ?
(a) No offence
(b) Offence of criminal breach of trust
(c) Offence of criminal misappropriation
(d) Offence of theft
11. The Supreme Court has interpreted the ‘power of judicial review’ as a basic
feature of the Constitution. However , which one of the following is
that Schedule which states that if a statute is specified, it cannot be questioned in a court of law on
the ground of violation of fundamental rights ?
(a) Tenth Schedule
(b) Eleventh Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
12. What do Rights in re aliena mean?
(a) Rights in the things of others
(b) Rights in one’s Own things
(c) Rights relating to property
(d) Rights to receive damages
13. The Supreme Court of India give a ruling that sovereign immunity of the State is subject to the fundamental right , In which one of the following cases ?
(a) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
(b) Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of U.P.
(d) People’s Union for Democratic Rights v. State of Bihar
14. Where does vicarious liability generally arise from?
(a) A contract of service
(b) A contract for service
(c) A contract of service as well as a contract for service
(d) A wrongful act of the master
15. There is a situation in which C, a stranger blocked the water pipes of a wash-basin and opened the tap. The wash-basin was otherwise in the control of the defendant B. The overflowing water damaged the plaintiff’s goods. There upon the plaintiff filed a suit for damages against the defendant B. C was not made a party. In the above said suit which one of the following conclusions is correct?
(a) The defendant was liable for damages to the plaintiff; on the basis of rule of strict liability
(b) The defendant was not liable for damages
(c) The stranger C will have to pay damages
(d) The plaintiff’s suit will be decreed in his favour
16. Which one of the following situations is not covered under Section 300, IPC in which the IPC speaks of situations in which if a murder is committed, then it is treated as ‘culpable homicide not amounting to murder?
(a) Exercise of the right of private defence
(b) Exercise of legal powers
(c) Exercise of legal rights
(d) Sudden fight
17. Which of the following rights in below list do not take place in the International Covenant on Civil & Political Rights?
1. Right to leave any country including his own and to return to his country.
2. Protection against torture and other forms of cruel and inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.
3. Right to move the International Court of Justice.
4. Right to be a member of the U.N.
Select the correct answer
(a) I and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) I and 4
(d) 2 and 4
18. Which one of the following statements is correct?
“De facto recognition of a foreign government……”
(a) is as conclusively binding, while it lasts, as de jure recognition
(b) is conclusive
(c) is always equal to de jure recognition
(d) has no legal effects
19. Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of Fundamental Rights I n which one of the following cases?
(a) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
(b) Kasturi Lal v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
(d) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
20. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When the President issues a Proclamation of Emergency
(a) all the Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended
(b) only Article 19 is automatically suspended. The enforcement of all other Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President
(c) only Article 19 is automatically suspended. The enforcement of all other Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 can be suspended by an order of the President
(d) Article 19 can be suspended. Other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
21. Which one of the following law is not a source of international law?
(a) Constitutions of sovereign States
(c) International conventions
(d) International customs and practices
22. Out of the following which one is not included in the UN Charter as an objective of the United Nations?
(a) To protect the sovereignty of the member states
(b) To avoid war as a means for settlement of international disputes
(c) Development of human personality
(d) To ensure respect for international obligations arising from treaties and other
forms of international law
23. Out of the following statement which one states about general offer is correct?
(a) The general offer should he made to the specified persons
(b) The general offer does not require any consideration
(c) The general offer does not work without the support of public at large
(d) The general offer prescribes some condition to be fulfilled.
24. Which of the following defences is most appropriate if a Magistrate in making a report to the superior casts an imputation on the character of a person Z in good faith and for public good?
(b) Fair comment
(c) Absolute privilege
(d) Qualified privilege
25. If A makes a contract with B to buy his house for Rs. 50,000 and if he is able to
secure a bank loan for that amount. The contract is
(a) Void for vagueness
(b) wagering contract
(c) Contingent contract
(d) Voidable contract
26. Which one of the following statements does occur in Article 1 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
(a) All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights
(b) They are endowed with reason and conscience
(c) They should always live together peacefully
(d) They should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood
27. In the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, which two of the following rights do not find place?
1. Right to work.
2. Right to adequate food.
3. Right to self determination.
4. Right to privacy.
28. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor,
(a) When it comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
(b) When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(c) When it comes to the knowledge of both the proposer and acceptor
(d) Even when it does not necessarily come to knowledge of anybody
29. A borrowed a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from B, which he did not repay for a period of three years. Now, which one of the following rights does B have against A?
(a) Perfect right
(b) Imperfect right
(c) Proprietary right
(d) None of the above
30. Because of a supervening event, If the performance of contract becomes impossible, the promisor is excused from the performance. What is this known as?
(a) doctrine of estoppel
(b) doctrine of frustration
(c) doctrine of eclipse
(d) doctrine of caveat emptor