Sample Paper For AFMC Entrance Exam

Sample Paper for AFMC Entrance Exam

Apr 9 • Medical Sample Papers • 26264 Views • 19 Comments on Sample Paper for AFMC Entrance Exam

AFMC Entrance Exam is conducted by Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC), Pune which is a leading institute of medical sciences in the country. The institute is affiliated to the Maharashtra University of Health Sciences, Nashik. AFMC conducts an all India entrance exam every year for admission to its MBBS course. The AFMC question paper is based on  Physics, Chemistry, Biology.  After clearing the exam AFMC calls all the successful candidates for personal interview.

AFMC Entrance

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Sample Paper For AFMC Entrance Exam:-

Two sets of sample papers are given below:-

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SET 1 :- ( PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)

1. If the velocity of light C, the universal gravitational constant G and Planck’s constant h be chosen as fundamental quantities then the dimensions of mass is this system

a. hCG

b. hCG–1

c. h–1C–1G

d. h1/2C1/2G–1/2

2. The force F acting on a particle in terms of time t and distance x is given by

                             F = (AcosBx) (CsinDt)

The dimensions of (AC) and (BD) respectively are

a. MLT–2, M0L–1T1

b. MLT–2, ML–1T–1

c. ML2T–2, M0L–1T–2

d. MLT–2, M0L–1T–1

3. The density of a material in the CGS system is 8 g/cm3. In a system in which the unit of length is 5 cm and the unit of mass is 20 g, the density is

a. 16 units

b. 25 units

c. 32 units

d. 50 units

4. Two forces P and Q acting at a point are such that if P is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned through 90°. Then

a. P = Q

b. P = 2Q

c. P = Q/2

d. Non relation between P & Q

5. Of the following which one has dimensions different from the remaining three

a. Energy per unit volume

b. Force per unit area

c. Stress × strain

d. Force × area

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6. How many moles of HCl will be present in 100 mL of a solution of specific gravity 1.08, containing 20% HCl by mass ?

a. 0.50

b. 0.60

c. 0.80

d. 0.12

7. The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16g at 50°C. The minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4g K2SO4 is:

a. 10g

b. 25g

c. 50g

d. 75g

8. 1.0 g of pure calcium carbonate was found to require 50 mL of dilute HCl for complete reactions. The strength of the HCl solution is given by:

a. 4 N

b. 2 N

c. 0.4 N

d. 0.2 N

9. In Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of the gaseous mixture under the aforesaid conditions in the end?

a. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 20 L H2

b. 10 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

c. 20 L NH3, 10 L N2 and 30 L H2

d. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

10. For the reaction A + 2B ->C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce

a. 5 moles of C

b. 4 moles of C

c. 8 moles of C (4) 13 moles of C

d. The number of gram atoms of oxygen in 0.16 mol

11. A room has dimension 5m × 3m × 4m. A mosquito files from one corner of the room to its diagonally opposite corner, then magnitude of displacement of mosquito is

a. 5 m

b. 5 2 m

c. 4 m

d. 3 m

12. If the resultant of the two vectors having magnitude of 7 and 4 is 11, the dot product of the two vectors could be

a. 28

b. 3

c. Zero

d. 7/4

13. A force vector  F = 2ˆI + 3ˆj N acts at a point P (4m, 2m) in xy plane then magnitude moment of force about origin of co-odinate system is

a. 14 Nm

b. 8 Nm

c. 12 Nm

d. Zero

14. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q are in the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following relations is true

a. P = 2Q

b. P = Q

c. PQ = 1

d. None of these

15. Which pair of the following forces will never give resultant force of 2N

a. 2 N and 2 N

b. 1 N and 1 N

c. 1 N and 3 N

d. 1 N and 4 N

16. The equivalent weight of KIO3 in the reaction,

          2Cr(OH)3 + (OH)+ KIO3 à 2CrO42– + 5H2O + KI  is :

a. Molecular weight

b. (Molecularweight)/3

c. (Molecularweight)/6

d. (Molecularweight)/2

17. 1g of a metal required 50 mL of 0.5 N HCl to dissolve it.The equivalent mass of the metal is :

a. 25

b. 50

c. 20

d. 40

18. When KMnO4 is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes from :

a. 7 to 4

b. 6 to 4

c. 7 to 2

d. 4 to 2

19. In nitric oxide (NO), the oxidation state of nitrogen is:

a. –2

b. +1

c. –1

d. +2

20. A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.3 % Xe. Oxidation number of Xe in this compound is :

a. –4

b. zero

c. +4

d. +6

21. A particle has an initial velocity of 9 m/s due east and a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2 due west. The distance covered by the particle in the fifth second of its motion is

a. 0

b. 0.5 m

c. 2 m

d. none of these

22. A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upwards in quick secessions is such a way that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum height. If the maximum height is 5m.The number of balls thrown per minute is: (Take g = 10 m/ s2 )

a. 80

b. 120

c. 40

d.  60

22. A ball is projected upwards from the top of tower with a velocity 50 ms-1 making an angle 30° with the horizontal. The height of tower is 70 m. After how many seconds from the instant of throwing will the ball reach the ground?

a. 2 s

b. 5 s

c. 7 s

d. 9 s

23. A man goes at the top of a smooth inclined plane. He releases a bag to fall
freely and he himself slides on inclined plane to reach the bottom. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of the man and bag respectively, then :

(1) v1  > v2

(2) v1 < v2

(3) v1  = v2

(4) v1 and v2 cannot be compared

24. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms-1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is :

a. 15 s

b. 10.90 s

c. 5.49 s

d. 2.745 s

25. The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 10% by increasing its speed of projection, without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the horizontal range will be

a. 20%

b. 15%

c. 10%

d. 5%

26. An electron is present in 4f subshell. The possible values of azimuthal quantum number for this electron are

a. 0, 1, 2, 3

b. 1, 2, 3, 4

c. 3

d. 4

27. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine times the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with it would become

a. 3 times

b. 9 times

c. 1/3 times

d. 1/9 times

28. The quantum number not obtained from the Schrodinger wave equation is

a. n

b. l

c. m

d. s

29. The subshell with n = 6 and l = 4 can accommodate a maximum of

a. 18 electrons

b. 16 electrons

c. 14 electrons

d. 10 electrons

30. If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s7 it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3 , because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed. It violates

a. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

b. Hund’s rule

c. Pauli’s exclusion principle

d.  Bohr postulate of stationary orbits

31. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards when the bus takes a sudden turn. This happens because of

a. Outward pull on them

b. Inertia

c. Change in momentum

d. Change in acceleration

32. If an elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration ‘a’, force exerted on the floor by a passenger of mass M travelling in the elevator is

a. Ma

b. Mg

c. Mg – Ma

d. Mg + Ma

33. Newton’s second law of motion gives the measure of:

a. Acceleration

b. Momentum

c. Force

d. Angular momentum

34. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight less than actual when

a. The elevator moves upward with constant acceleration

b. The elevator moves downward with constant acceleration

c. The elevator moves upward with uniform velocity

d. The elevator moves downward with uniform velocity

35. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a frictionless table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 4 kg, the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is

a. 4 N

b. 3 N

c. 2 N

d. 0.6 N

36. Which of the following should be the order of increasing values of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F

a. C > N > F > O

b. C < F < N < O

c. C < F < N < O

d. C < N < F < O

37. Electron–affinity of Cl is larger than that of F because

a. higher atomic radius of F

b. weaker inter electronic repulsion in Cl

c. more vacant p–subshell in Cl

d. smaller electronegativity of Cl

38. Mendeleef periodic law failed because it was

a. based on electronic configuration of atom

b. based on atomic weight

c. discovery of isotope

d. related to Octaws rule

39. False statement for periodic classification of elements is

a. The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers

b. No. of nonmetallic elements is less than the number of metallic elements

c. First ionization energy of elements is not change continuously with increasing of atomic number in a period

d. d–subshell is filled by directional electron with increasing atomic number of transition elements.

40. Which of the following does not affect the ionisation potential of the atom?

a. Nuclear charge

b. Electron neutrality with protons

c. Penetration effect

d. Atomic size

41. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating the gun can exert and average force of 144 N at the most. How many bullets (maximum number) can be shot per sec?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 6

42. A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 6 m on a frictionless surface by a fore of 106 N applied to the other end. The linear density of the rope is 0.5 kg/m. The force acting on 50 kg mass is

a. 50 N

b. 100 N

c. 150 N

d. 200 N

43. A scooter of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h. The force required to stop of the scooter in 10 s is

a. 180 N

b. 208 N

c. 360 N

d. 720 N

44. N bullets each of mass m kg are fired with a velocity of v m/s at the rate of n bullets per second upon a wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is (assuming no rebounce)

a. Nmv/n

b. n N mv

c. nNv/m

d. nmv

45. A bullet fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105t where F is in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. The average impulse imparted to the bullet is

a. 8 Ns

b. 0.9 Ns

c. 1.8 Ns

d. Zero

46. The boiling point of HF is less than H2O. This is because

a. H2O has hydrogen bonding where as HF has dipole dipole interaction.

b. H2O can form more number of hydrogen bonds

c. Oxygen – hydrogen hydrogen bond is stronger.

d. The above statement is false

47. What is the actual dipole moment of HX if the bond length is 1.3A° and percentage ionic character is 20.

a. 0.26

b. 1.248

c. 0.624

d. 2.496

48. Covalent substances generally have low melting and boiling points because

a. Covalent bond is weaker bond

b. Covalent bond is directional in nature

c. The intermolecular forces are generally weak

d. Covalent molecules are bulky

49. Glycerol (CH2OHCHOHCH2OH) is more viscous than ethanol because

a. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in ethanol

b. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in glycerol

c. Glycerol has higher molecular mass

d. Intramolecular H-bonding occurs in glycerol

50. If two ice cubes are placed together, the force of attraction between them is

a. Vanderwaals forces

b. Hydrogen bond

c. Dipole – dipole interaction

d. Covalent bond

SET 2 : – (BIOLOGY)

1. Blue eye colour in humans is recessive to brown eye colour. The expected children of a marriage between a blue eyed woman and a brown eyed man who had a blue eyeed mother will be

a. All blue eyed

b. All brown eyed

c. All black eyed

2. If genes A and B show supplementary gene effect for mice coat colour, such that aa is rescessively epistatic to B, what would be the ratio of agouti, black & albino in the cross aaBB × AaBb

a. 1 : 2 : 1

b. 1 : 1 : 2

c. 2 : 2

d. 4: 3 : 1

3. A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism (a recessive character) is self pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype

a. 900

b. 600

c. 1200

d. 300

4. A person meet with an accident and great loss of blood has occured. There is not time to analyse his blood groups. It is safe to transfuse blood of

a. AB, Rh+

b. AB, Rh¯

c. O, Rh¯

d. O, Rh+

5. When chicken on F1 generation are mated among themselves, they produce an F2 generation of four kind of birds, as far as comb type and plumage colour are concerned in the following proportion 9 rose comb blacks, 1 single comb white, 3 rose comb whites, 3 single comb blacks. Based on this find out which two are the recessive characters in these birds

a. Black plumage and white plumage

b. Single comb and white plumage

c. Rose comb and single comb

d. Rose comb and black plumage

6. In Spallanzani’s experiment, one set of flasks had access to air through holes in the corks and the other set did not. In the set which had access to air, the contents showed abundant growth of microorganisms. What inference can be drawn from this experiment?

a. Spontaneous generation needs contact with air

b. Spontaneous generation does not need air

c. In the set of jars which were closed with corks, the contents had not been boiled thoroughly

d. Air must have got into the jars through the holes in the corks and must have carried the microorganisms along with it

7. In its most widely accepted sense, organic evolution mean, i.e., the “Doctrine of evolution” is particularly concerned with

a. Descent with modification

b. Special Creation

c. Spontaneous growth

d. Environmental conditions

8. The Theory of Recapitulation means that

a. All animals start as an egg

b. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history

c. Body parts once lost are regenerated

d. Progeny of an organisms resembles its parents

9. Which one is a pair of homologous organs

a. Wings of grasshopper and crow

b. Wings of bats and butterflies

c. Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu

d. Arm of monkey and arm of human

10. According to the theory of evolution, all of the different kinds of homologies-namely, anatomical,molecular, and embryological should

a. be completely independent of each other

b. produce similar patterns of evolutionary relatedness

c. yield very different hierarchical patterns

d. link all of the species currently present on earth

11. Wheat plant is 6n = 42. What will be the number of chromosomes in it’s Monosomic, haploid and Trisomics?

a. 41, 21 and 7

b. 43, 21 and 7

c. 15, 7 and 7

d. 13, 7 and 15

12. X-rays cause mutation by

a. Transition

b. Transversion

c. Deletion

d. Base substitution

13. The chromosomes bearing loops for rapid transcription and informosomes production are

a. Lampbrush chromosomes

b. Polytene chromosomes

c. SAT chromosomes

d. B chromosomes

14. Which of the following histones is associated with linker DNA?

a. H1

b. H2A

c. H3

d. H4

15. Mutations

a. Are the ultimate source of genetic variability

b. Are goal directed

c. Are commonly occurring phenomenon

d. Arise as a result of, or in anticipation of environmental necessities

16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of natural selection?

a. Natural selection causes genetic changes in individuals

b. Natural selection acts on individuals but evolution occurs in populations

c. Fitness of an organism is measured by its reproductive success

d. Natural selection is not the only evolutionary force

17. Speciation is the process by which new species form. The scientist who played a major role in describing the process of speciation was

a. Charles Darwin

b. Ernst Mayr

c. G. J. Mendel

d. George Palade

18. The evolution of numerous species, such as Darwin’s finches, from a single ancestor is called

a. Adaptive radiation

b. Sympatric speciation

c. Gradualism

d. Convergent evolution

19. If a new allele suddenly becomes very abundant in, a population, most likely it is

a. Mutating rapidly

b. Flowing with emigrants

c. Strongly selected for

d. A product of assortative mating

20. In evolutionary terms, an organism’s fitness is measured by its

a. Health

b. Contribution to the gene pool of the next generation

c. Mutation rate

d. Genetic variability

21.Dominant gene for tallness is T and for yellow colour is Y. A plant heterozygous for both the traits is selfed, then the ratio of pure homozygous dwarf and green offspring would be

a. 1/4

b. 4/16

c. 3/16

d. 1/16

22. The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is

a. 3 : 1

b. 1 : 2 : 1

c. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

d. 1 : 1

23. The flightless bird, Kiwi is found in

a. Mauritius

b. Indonesia

c. New Zealand

d. New Guinea

24. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by

a. Development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups

b. Development of common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestory

c. Development of characteristics by random mating

d. Replacement of common characteristics in different groups

25. Which one represents a connecting link as an evidence from comparative anatomy in favour of organic evolution

a. Whale between fishes and mammals

b. Archaeopteryx between birds and mammals

c. Duckbill platypus between reptiles and mammals

d. Java ape-man between modern man and Peking Man

26. Two geographical regions separated by high mountain ranges

a. Palaearctic and Oriental

b. Oriental and Australian

c. Nearctic and Palaearctic

d. Neotropical and Ethopian

27. Most primitive living mammals which provide an evidence of organic evolution from geographical distribution are found in

a. China

b. India

c. Australia

d. Africa

28. Galapagos islands are associated with the name of

a. Wallace

b. Malthus

c. Darwin

d. Lamarck

29. Presence of temporary gill pouches in embryos of snakes, birds and mammals indicates that

a. These embryos need the pouches for breathing

b. Common ancestor of these animals had gill pouches

c. Lungs evolved from gills

d. Fluid medium in which these embryos develop has abundant O2

30. Pasteur succeeded in disproving the spontaneous generation theory, because

a. He was lucky

b. He was ingenious in drawing out the necks of the glass flasks so as to provide access to air, but not to the micro-organisms

c. Of the fact that the sample of yeast taken by him was dead

d. Of the clean surroundings of his laboratory

31. Geology and Zoology are intimately connected in

a. Archaeology

b. Palaeontology

c. Sociology

d. Zoogeography

32. 9: 3 : 3:1 ratio is due to

a. Incomplete dominance

b. Complete dominance

c. Espistatic genes

d. Polygenic inheritance

33. A mother of blood group O has a group O child. The father could be?

a. A or B or O

b. O only

c. A or B

d. AB only

 

34. Normal man without widow peak marries to a woman having widow peak (dominant character) produce a boy child with widow peak which marries to a normal female what is the probability to have a widow peak child in next generation

a. 100%

b. 50%

c. 25%

d. 0%

35. A dwarf pea plant was treated with GA. The plant became tall. The treated plant was then crossed with a homozygous tall pea. The results in F2 are expected to be

a. All tall

b. Tall and dwarf in 3 : 1 ratio

c. 50% tall

d. All dwarf

36. Presence of heterochromatin …… the frequency of crossing over

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. does not effect

d. Is directly related to

37. In Melandrium, sex determination is of

a. XX–XO

b. ZZ–ZW

c. XX–XY

d. XY–XO

38. Higest number of chromosomes in plants have been recorded in

a. Marsilia

b. Aulosira

c. Ophioglossum

d. Parthenium

39. Mustard gas was used as a chemical mutagen for the first time by

a. Muller

b. Alterberg

c. Auerbach and Robinson

d. Stadler

40. Which of the following increases the frequency of crossing over when increased ?

a. Temperature

b. X rays

c. Radium radiations

d. All of these

41. Mendel observed that some characters did not assort independently. Later researches found it to be due to

a. Crossing over

b. Linkage

c. Dominance of one trait over theother

d. Amitosis

42. The condition required for Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is

a. No mutation and no gene flow between populations

b. Very large population and random mating

c. There must be no natural selection

d. All of the above

43. Genetic drift is a

a. Random process

b. Directed process

c. Selection-driven process

d. Co-evolutionary process

44. Disruptive selection

a. Adapts individuals within a population to different habitats

b. Favours individuals who possess relatively extreme values for a trait at the expense of individuals with average values

c. Favours organisms at both ends of the distribution of the trait

d. All of the above

45. Allopatric speciation can occur in populations that are

a. Physically separated

b. In the same area

c. Physically non-separated

d. In the same area and within the same ecological conditions

46. Genetic basis of adaptation was demonstrated through experiments by

a. Lederberg

b. Hugo de Vries

c. Charles Darwin

d. Lamarck

47. Population of dark Biston betularia increased greatly in England from 1848 to 1898. The selective agent causing the change was/were

a. Tree bark

b. Birds

c. Human beings

d. Toxins from smoke

48. The smallest unit that can evolve is a

a. Species

b. Genotype

c. Gene

d. Population

49. ……… and ……… generate variation, while ……… results in adaptation to the environment.

a. Genetic drift ……… natural selection ……… mutation

b. Mutation ……… sexual recombination ……… natural selection

c. Overproduction of offspring ……… mutation ……… sexual recombination

d. Natural selection ……… mutation ……… sexual recombination

50. Two animals are considered different species if they

a. Look different

b. Cannot inter-breed

c. Live in different habitats

d. Are members of different populations

ANSWERS

SET-1( Physics and Chemistry)

1)      Answer: d

2)      Answer: d

3)      Answer: d

4)      Answer: a

5)      Answer: d

6)      Answer: b

7)      Answer: b

8)      Answer: c

9)      Answer: b

10)   Answer: b

11)   Answer: b

12)   Answer: a

13)   Answer: b

14)   Answer: a

15)   Answer: d

16)   Answer: c

17)   Answer: d

18)   Answer: c

19)   Answer: d

20)   Answer: d

21)   Answer: b

22)   Answer: d

23)   Answer: c

24)   Answer: c

25)   Answer: c

26)   Answer: c

27)   Answer: c

28)   Answer: d

29)   Answer: a

30)   Answer: c

31)   Answer: b

32)   Answer: d

33)   Answer: c

34)   Answer: b

35)   Answer: d

36)   Answer: d

37)   Answer: b

38)   Answer: b

39)   Answer: c

40)   Answer: b

41)   Answer: a

42)   Answer: b

43)   Answer: c

44)   Answer: d

45)   Answer: b

46)   Answer: b

47)   Answer: b

48)   Answer: c

49)   Answer: b

50)   Answer: b

SET-2 (Biology)

1)    Answer: d

2)    Answer: c

3)    Answer: b

4)    Answer: c

5)    Answer: b

6)    Answer: d

7)    Answer: a

8)    Answer: b

9)    Answer: d

10) Answer: b

11) Answer: d

12) Answer: c

13) Answer: a

14) Answer: a

15) Answer: a

16) Answer: a

17) Answer: b

18) Answer: a

19) Answer: c

20) Answer: b

21) Answer: d

22) Answer: a

23) Answer: c

24) Answer: b

25) Answer: c

26) Answer: a

27) Answer: c

28) Answer: c

29) Answer: b

30) Answer: b

31) Answer: b

32) Answer: b

33) Answer: a

34) Answer: b

35) Answer: b

36) Answer: b

37) Answer: c

38) Answer: c

39) Answer: c

40) Answer: d

41) Answer: b

42) Answer: d

43) Answer: a

44) Answer: d

45) Answer: a

46) Answer: a

47) Answer: b

48) Answer: d

49) Answer: b

50) Answer: b

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19 Responses to Sample Paper for AFMC Entrance Exam

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  6. amit kumar says:

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  7. fahim says:

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    • Trishla Rathore says:

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  11. Anonymous says:

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