WBJEE 2015 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
State Govt. organize WBJEE(West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination) as a centralized test for admission of students to various private and govt. medical and engineering institutions in West Bengal.Students after their 12th can appear for this test for graduation courses.Two
different tests are conducted for medical colleges and engineering colleges and there is a biology paper for medical test whereas mathematics paper for engineering test.Physics and chemistry are common to both the test.
Exam Pattern has been changed from 2014,the question paper contains only MCQ questions having same weightage as that of 2 marks short answer questions in the previous years question paper.Each paper contains 80 questions and it has been divided in to two test-1st test contains 60 MCQ questions of 1 mark each and 2nd test 20 MCQ of 2 marks each.Negative marking is also there. This year wbJEE is going to be different from what your seniors have experienced.
WBJEE 2015
- All QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY
- EACH QUESTION CARRY EQUAL MARK (1 MARK)
- THERE WILL BE NEGATIVE MARKING FOR EACH WRONG ANSWER (1/3 MARK)
WBJEE 2013 (Chemistry) Model Questions
1. The state of hybridization of the nitrogen atom bonded to hydrogen in hydrazoic acid (N3H) is:
A. Sp
B. Sp2
C. Sp3
D. None of these
2. A reducing agent
A. Loses electronics and is reduced
B. Loses electronics and is oxidized
C. Gains electronics and is reduced
D. Gains electronics and is oxidized
3. Arrange the following in decreasing order
A. HCHO>CH3CHO>CH3COCH3
B. CH3CHO>HCHO>CH3COCH3
C. CH3CHO>CH3COCH3>HCHO
D. CH3CHO>CH3COCH3>HCHO=
4. The cathode is slowly raised out of the melt by an electrical device during the electrolytic extraction of:
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Aluminium
D. Sodium
5. When a stream of chlorine gas is passed through an aqueous solution of potassium iodide for a long period of time at room temperature
A. The solution throughout remains colourless
B. The solution turns violet-black
C. The solution becomes deep brown and then colourless
D. The solution provides a heavy white precipitate
6. Which of the following species has the maximum number of unpaired d-electrons?
A. Zn
B. Fe2+
C. Ni2+
D. Cu+
7. Deoxyribose is:
A. A ketopentose with four hydroxyl groups
B. A ketopentose with four hydroxyl groups
C. An aldopentose lacking hydroxyl group at carbon-3
D. An aldopentose lacking hydroxyl group at carbon-2
8. The unit of the rate constant for a first order reaction is:
A. mol.L-1.sec-1
B. L2.mol-2.sec-1
C. sec-1
D. L.mol-1.sec-1
9. Four metals A, B, C and D has Eo values: -0.76 V, 0.34 V, -2.34 V and 0.44 V respectively.
What is the correct order of their increasing oxidizing power?
A. A>B>C>D
B. D>B>A>C
C. C>D>A>B
D. D>A>B>C
10. Which of the following do not play a significant role in ozone depletion?
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Oxides of nitrogen
C. Freons
D. Carbon monoxide
11. Preparation of pentaerythritol from acetaldehyde and formaldehyde requires:
A. First aldol condensation and then cannizaro reaction
B. First perkin reaction and then haloform reaction
C. First claisen condensation and then aldon condensation
D. None of these
12. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) correctly represents an electron in the 5f subshell?
A. 5, 2, 1, 0
B. 5, 3, -2, +1/2
C. 5, 5, 2, -1/2
D. 5, 3, 4, +1/2
13. (S)- (+)-lactic acid and (R)-(-)-lactic acid are nonsupperposable mirror images of each other.
They are called
A. Tautomers
B. Enantiomers
C. Structural isomers
D. Diastereomers
14. If 5g sample of bleaching powder liberates 574 ml of chlorine gas at NTP with dilute HCL, the percentage of available chlorine in the given sample is [Ca=40,Cl=35.5]
A. 18.19
B. 11.48
C. 28.70
D. 36.38
15. A gas described by the van der waal’s equation
A. Has pressure lower than the pressure exerted by the same gas behaving ideally
B. Is characterized by van der Waal’s coefficients that are dependent on the identity of the gas
C. Behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of high pressure values
D. Behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large molar volume
16. Which of the following is the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic conditions?
A. q?0, T=0, w=0
B. q=0, T?0, w=0
C. q=0, T=0, w=0
D. q=0, T<0, w?0
17. What is/are correct about Charles’ law?
A. V ? T at constant P and n
B. VT=constant at constant P and n
C. V ? P at constant T and n
D. (dV / dT)p = constant
18. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.51 gm of aluminium oxide.
A. 3.01 × 1021
B. 3.01×1022
C. 6.02×1021
D. 6.02×1022
19. Which of the following represent(s) the correct order of ionic radii?
A. S2->K+>Ca2+
B. Na+<Al3+<Mg2+
C. s2-<K+<Ca2+
D. Na+<Al3+<Mg2+
20. The vapour pressure of pure water at 28o C is 28.35 torr. The vapour pressure of a solution containing 68.4 kg of cane sugar in 1000 g of water at the same temperature will be:
A. 25.24 torr
B. 26.44 torr
C. 28.24 torr
D. 28.34 torr
21. Which of the following gases will have the same rate of diffusion under similar conditions?
A. H2 and He
B. CO2 and N2O
C. NO and CO
D. CO and C2H4
22. The coefficients on the L.H.s for the reactants and the R.H.S for the products in the balanced form of the reaction MnO4 +Mn2+ + H2O –> MnO2 + H+ should be:
A. 2, 2, 2 and 5, 10
B. 2, 3, 5 and 5, 10
C. 2, 3, 2 and 5, 4
D. 3, 2, 3 and 5, 4
23. Arrange the following in increasing order of nucleophilic addition reaction : Acetophenone, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitro Benzaldehyde, Benzaldehyde
A. Acetophenone< p-Tolualdehyde< Benzaldehyde< p-Nitro Benzaldehyde
B. Acetophenone> Benzaldehyde> p-Tolualdehyde> p-Nitro Benzaldehyde
C. Acetophenone< Benzaldehyde< p-Tolualdehyde< p-Nitro Benzaldehyde
D. Acetophenone> p-Tolualdehyde> Benzaldehyde> p-Nitro Benzaldehyde
24. The value of the electromotive force for the following cell Zn? ZnSO4(0.05M) ?? ZnSO4(0.5M)? Zn at 298 K is
A. -0.0295
B. -0.059
C. 0.0295
D. 0.059
25. A compound that behaves like a monobasic acid as well as an inorganic ester is:
A. Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
B. Ethyl hydrogen phthalate
C. Potassium hydrogen tartarate
D. Trimethyl oxonium tetrafluroborate
26. Reaction of R OH with R’MgX produces:
A. RH
B. R’H
C. R-R
D. R’-R’
27. Ethelyne can be separated from acetylene by passing the mixture through:
A. Fuming H2SO4
B. Pyrogallol
C. Ammonical Cu2Cl2
D. Charcoal powder
28. Which of the following statements is not correct
A. Silicon is extensively used as a semiconductor
B. Silicon occurs in free state in nature
C. Carborundum in SiC
D. Mica contains the element silicon
29. Electron is an alloy of
A. Mg and Zn
B. Fe and Mg
C. Ni and Zn
D. Al and Zn
30. An organic compound made of C, H and N contains 20% nitrogen. Its molecular weight is:
A. 140
B. 100
C. 65
D. 70
31. Under which of the following condition is the relation ?H=?E + P?V
A. Constant temperature and pressure
B. Constant temperature
C. Constant temperature , pressure and composition
D. Constant pressure
32. The reaction that takes place when Cl2 gas is passed through conc. NaOH solution:
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Disproportionation
D. Displacement
33. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralized by dilute NaOH solution and X kcal and Y kcal of heat are liberated respectively. Which of the following is true?
A. X=y
B. X=2y
C. X=y/2
D. None of these
34. Hybridization of central atom in NF3 is
A. sp3
B. sp
C. sp2
D. dsp2
35. The time taken for 10% completion of a first order reaction is 20 mins. Then ,for 19% completion , the reaction will take
A. 40 mins
B. 30 mins
C. 50 mins
D. 60 mins
36. The second law of thermodynamics says that in a cycle process:
A. Work cannot be completely converted into heat
B. Heat cannot be converted into work
C. Heat cannot be completely converted into work
D. Work cannot be converted into heat
37. The oxidant which is used as an antiseptic is:
A. KBrO3
B. KMnO4
C. CrO3
D. KNO3
38. The catalyst used for olefin polymerization is
A. Zeiglar-Natta Catalyst
B. Wilkinson Catalyst
C. Rancy nickel catalyst
D. Merrifield resin
39. Which of the following contributes to the double helical structure of DNA
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Disulphide bond
C. Van-der Wall’s force
D. Covalent bond
40. In which of the following reactions new carbon-carbon bond is not found
A. Wurtz Reaction
B. Aldol condensation
C. Friedal craft reaction
D. Cannizario reaction
WBJEE 2015 (Physics) Model Questions
1. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?
A. Gold
B. Silicon
C. Copper
D. Platinum
2. Magnetic field intensity H at the centre of a circular loop of radius r carrying current I e.m.u. is
A. r/I oersted
B. 2?I/r oersted
C. I/2?r oersted
D. 2?r/I oersted
3. Four capacitors of equal capacitances have an equivalent capacitance C1 when connected in series and an equivalent capacitance C2 when connected in parallel. The ratio C1/ C2 is:
A. 1/16
B. 1/12
C. 1/4
D. 1/8
4. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 coulomb, the energy stored in it increases by 21%. The original charge on the capacitor is
A. 10 C
B. 20 C
C. 30 C
D. 40 C
5. The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I=3t2+2t+5. The charge flowing through the cross section of the wire in time from t=0 to t=2 sec is
A. 5 C
B. 18 C
C. 20 C
D. 22 C
6. At a certain place , the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is ?3 times the vertical component . the angle oh dip at that place is
A. 30o
B. 60o
C. 45o
D. 90o
7. If E= energy, G= gravitational constant, I=impulse and M= mass, the dimension of ((GIM2)/E2) are same as that of
A. Force
B. Time
C. Length
D. Mass
8. The second overtone of an open pipe is in resonance with the first overtone of a closed pipe of length 2m. length of the open pipe is:
A. 1m
B. 2m
C. 4m
D. 8m
9. A solid homogenous cube floats at the interface of two liquids, mercury and water, kept in a container such that the lower portion of the cube is immersed in mercury and the upper portion is in water. the density of the materials of the cube is 7.3 gm/cc and those of mercury and water are respectively 13.6 gm/cc and 1.0 gm/cc. then the % of volume of the cube immersed in mercury is
A. 50%
B. 68%
C. 70%
D. 73%
10. When a potential difference is applied across, the current passing through
A. An insulator at 0 K is zero
B. A metal at 0 K is finite
C. A p-n diode at 300 K is finite, if it is reverse –biased
D. a semi-conductor at 0 K is zero
11. In hydrogen spectrum, the longest wavelength in the U-U series is 122×10-9 meter. This corresponds to a transition of electron from the level
A. n=2 to n=1
B. n=3 to n=2
C. n=4 to n=3
D. n=3 to n=1
12. If I is the moment of inertia and E is the kinetic energy of rotation of a body, its angular momentum will be
A. ?EI
B. 2EI
C. E/I
D. ?2EI
13. A body cools from 50o C to 49.9o in 5 sec. How long will it take to cool from 40o C to 39.9o C?
(The temperature of the surrounding is 30o C)
A. 5 sec
B. 10 sec
C. 15 sec
D. 20 sec
14. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 100 ? and shows full-scale deflection at a current of 100 µA. The galvanometer has to be used as an ammeter in the range of 0-100 mA so that 100 mA is the full-scale deflection current. A resistance R has to be connected in parallel. Then
A. The value of R should be 0.10 ?
B. When this new ammeter measures 100 mA current, the current through the galvanometer is 100 µA
C. For higher current measurement, the value of r should be larger than the present value of R
D. This new ammeter can measure both +100 mA and -100 mA
15. The quantities ?o and µ0 denote the free-space permittivity and free-space permeability respectively. If E and B respectively denote the magnetic fields, then which of the following has the dimension of velocity?
A. (E/?o)×(µo/B)
B. E/B
C. ?µo?o (E/B)
D. µo?o(B/E)2
16. a car moving at a speed of 20km/hr stops by applying brakes after travelling 5m. if the same car is moving at 40km/hr, the stopping distance after applying brakes will be
A. 1m
B. 5m
C. 10m
D. 20m
17. In a Carnot heat engine, 8000 J is absorbed from a source of 400oK and 6000 J of heat is rejected to sink. The temperature of the sink is
A. 100o
B. 300o
C. 0o
D. 273o
18. At given instant of time, two radioactive P and Q have the same number of atoms. It is also known that the mean-life time of P is the same as the half-life time of Q. then which of the following is correct
A. The decay rate of Q is larger than that of P
B. The decay constant of P is less than that of Q
C. The decay rate of P and Q will be same initially
D. The decay rate of P is larger than that of Q
19. A spherical black body of radius 20 cm radiates 450 W power at 500o K. if the radius is halved and temperature doubled, the power radiated in watts would be
A. 225
B. 450
C. 900
D. 1800
20. The electrostatic potential energy between proton and electron separated by 1A is
A. -14.4 eV
B. -13.6 eV
C. -27.2 eV
D. -1.44 eV
21. The dimension of a quantity is given by ML2T2I-2 , when M is mass, L is length, T is time, and I is electric current. Which of the following quantities has this dimension?
A. Capacitor
B. Magnetic flux
C. Electric flux
D. Inductance
22. An object is moving away from a vertical concave mirror of focal length 25m. when the distance of the object is 100m, the velocity of the object is 5 m/s and it accelerates at the rate of 2 m/s2 . the distance of the object from the image after 5 sec is
A. 300m
B. 120m
C. 90m
D. 150m
23. An oil drop of radius 10-6 m carries charge equal to that of 3 electrons. If density of oil is 2×103 kg/m3, the electric field required to keep the drop stationary is
A. 1.71×105V/m
B. 1.71×103 V/m
C. 1.71×106 V/m
D. 1.71 V/m
24. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. At a distance r from the centre of the sphere the electric field (magnitude) due to the spherical charge distribution
A. E?1/r2 for 0<r<? (everywhere except centre)
B. E?1/r for R<r<? (outside sphere)
C. E=0 at r=R (at the surface)
D. E?r for r<R (inside sphere)
25. The same weight of mg is hung from two wires of length l, radius r, and length 2l, radius 2r respectively, having the same Young’s modulus Y. then , the net elongation equals
A. (2mgl) / (3?r2Y)
B. (mgl) / (3?r2Y)
C. (mgl) / (2?r2Y)
D. (3mgl) / (2?r2Y)
26. Two soap bubbles of radii in the ratio 2:1. What is the ratio of the excess pressure inside them?
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 4:1
27. One kg of copper is drawn into a wire of 1mm diameter and a wire 2mm diameter. the resistance of the two wires will be in the ratio
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 16:1
D. 4:1
28. An electrical cable having a resistance of 0.2 ? delivers 10 kW at 200 V D.C. to a factory.what is the efficiency of transmission?
A. 65%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 95%
29. A wire of resistance 5? is drawn out so that its new length is 3 times its original length. What is the resistance of the new wire?
A. 45?
B. 15?
C. 5/3?
D. 5?
30. Two identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance are connected in parallel with an external resistance R. to get maximum power developed across R, the value of R is
A. R=r/2
B. R=r
C. R==r/3
D. R=2r
31. To write the decimal number 37 in binary how many binary digits are required?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
32. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n1=2 to an orbit with level n2=1 the emitted radiation has a wavelength given by
A. ?=5R/3
B. ?=4R/3
C. ?=1R/4
D. ?=3R/4
33. An alternating current of rms value 10 A is passed through a 12? resistor. The maximum potential difference across the resistor is:
A. 20 V
B. 90 V
C. 1969.8 V
D. None
34. The acceleration ‘a’ (in ms-2) of a body starting from rest varies with time t (in s) following the equation a=3t+4. The velocity of the body at the time t=2s will be
A. 10 ms-1
B. 18 ms-1
C. 14 ms-1
D. 26 ms-1
35. If the kinetic energy of a body changes by 20% then its momentum would change by-
A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 40%
D. 44%
36. A bullet is fired with a velocity making an angle 60o with the horizontal plane. The horizontal component of the velocity of the bullet when reaches the maximum height is
A. U
B. 0
C. ?3u/2
D. u/2
37. A particle is projected at 60o to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. the kinetic energy at the highest point
A. K
B. zero
C. K/4
D. K/2
38. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. if a force is applied to a wire of this material , there is a decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%. The percentage increase in the length is:;
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 2.5%
D. 4%
39. A spring of force constant k is cut into two equal halves. The force constant of each half is
A. k/?2
B. k
C. k/2
D. 2k
40. The rods of equal length and diameter have thermal conductivities 3 and 4 units respectively. If they are joined in series, the thermal conductivity of the combination ould be
A. 3.34
B. 3.43
C. 3.5
D. 3.4
WBJEE 2015 (Mathematics) Model Questions
1. Sin(470)+ Sin(610)- Sin(110)- Sin(250) equals
A. Sin(360)
B. Cos(360)
C. Sin(70)
D. Cos(70)
2. The number of solutions of tan(x)+sec(x)=2cos(x) lying in interval [0,2?]
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
3. If C is the reflection of A(2,4) in x-axis and B is the reflection of C in y-axis, then ?AB? is
A. 20
B. 2?5
C. 4?5
D. 4
4. The line y=2t2 intersects the ellipse x2/9 + y2/4 =1 in real points if
A. ?t??
B. ?t?<1
C. ?t?>1
D. ?t??1
5. If a and B square matrices of the same order and AB=3I, then A-1 is equal to
A. 3B
B. 1/3 B
C. 3B-1
D. 1/3 B1
6. The co-ordinates of the focus of the parabola described parametrically by x=5t2+,y=10t+4 are
A. (7,4)
B. (3,4)
C. (3,-4)
D. (-7,4)
7. For any two sets A and B, A-(A-B) equals
A. B
B. A-B
C. A?B
D. Ac ? Bc
8. a=2?2, b=6, A=45o, then
A. no triangle is possible
B. one triangle is possible
C. two triangle are possible
D. either no triangle or two triangle are possible
9. in a triangle ABC if sinA.sinB=ab/c2, then the triangle is
A. equilateral
B. isosceles
C. right angled
D. obtuse angled
10. A positive acute angle is divided into two parts whose tangents are ½ and 1/3 .then the angle is
A. ?/4
B. ?/5
C. ?/3
D. ?/6
11. if 2X+2Y=2X+Y, then the value of dy/dx at x=y=1 is
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
12. The line segment joining the points (1,2) and (-2,1) is divided by the line 3x+4y=7 in the ratio
A. 3:4
B. 4:3
C. 9:4
D. 4:9
13. If the complex conjugate of(x + iy)(1-i2) be 1+I, then
A. X=1/5
B. Y=3/5
C. X-iy=(1-i)/(1+i2)
D. X+iy=(1-i)/(1-i2)
14. The area bounded by y=tan(x),y=cot(x) and x-axis in 0?x??/2
A. 3loge2
B. loge2
C. 2loge2
D. 5loge2
15. If x=(1+i)/2 (where i=?-1), then the expression 2×4-2×2+x+3 equals
A. 3+i/2
B. 3-i/2
C. (3+i)/2
D. (3-i)/2
16. The positive value of ? for which the lines y-2x-6==0, 3y+x-4=0,?y+4x+?2=0 are concurrent is
A. ?=2
B. ?=3
C. ?=4
D. ?=5
17. if the normal at the point “t1” on the curve xy=c2 meets the curve again at “t2”, then
A. (t1)3t2=1
B. (t1)3t2=-1
C. (t2)3t2=-1
D. (t2)3t2=1
18. The ratio of the greatest value of 2-cosx+sin2x to its least value is
A. 5/4
B. 9/4
C. 13/4
D. 15/4
19. If y=4x-5 is tangent to the curve y2=px3+q at (2,3), then
A. P=2,q=-7
B. P=-2,q=7
C. P=-2,q=-7
D. P=2,q=7
20. If a>0, the roots of the equation logaax+loga^2xa3+logxa2, are given by
A. a-(4/3)
B. a-(3/4)
C. a-(1/2)
D. a-(-1)
21. if n=mC2 then the value of nC2 is given by
A. m-1C4
B. m+1C4
C. 3.(m+1C4)
D. 3.(m-1C4)
22. The value of 2tan-1(1/3)+tan-1(1/7) is:
A. ?
B. ?/4
C. ?/2
D. ?/8
23. the degree and order of the differential equation of all parabolas whose axis is the x-axis are respectively
A. 1,2
B. 2,1
C. 2,3
D. 3,2
24. If the roots ?,? of the equation (x2-bx)/(ax-c)=(?-1)/ (?+1) are such that (?+?)=0,then the value of ? is
A. C
B. 1/c
C. (a-b)/(a+b)
D. (a+b)/(a-b)
25. The second derivative of a sin3t with respect to a cos3t at t=?/4 is
A. 2
B. 1/12a
C. 4?2/3a
D. 3a/4 ?2
26. The smallest value of 5cos?+12 is
A. 5
B. 12
C. 7
D. 17
27. product of any r consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by
A. r!
B. (r+4)!
C. (r+1)!
D. (r+2)!
28. The integrating factor of the differential equation xlogx dy/dx +y=2logx is given by
A. ex
B. logx
C. log(logx)
D. x
29. if x2+y2=1 then
A. yy”-(2y’)2+1=0
B. yy”+(y’)2+1=0
C. yy”-(y’)2+1=0
D. yy”+(2y’)2+1=0
30. A polygon has 44 diagonals. The number of its sides is
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
31. The angle between the lines joining the foci of an ellipse to one particular extremity of the minor axis is 90o. the eccentricity of the ellipse is
A. 1/8
B. 1/?3
C. ?(2/3)
D. ?(1/2)
32. The sum of all real roots of the equation ?x-2?2+?x-2?-2=0
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
33. For each n?N, 23n-1 divisible by
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 16
34. The Rolle’s theorem is applicable in the interval 1?x?1 for the function
A. F(x)=x
B. F(x)=x2
C. F(x)=2×3+3
D. F(x)=?x?
35. The distance covered by a particle in t seconds is given by x=3+8t-4t2. After 1 second velocity will be
A. 0 unit/second
B. 3 units/second
C. 4 units/second
D. 7 units/second
36. If the coefficient of x2and x3 in the expansion of(3+ax)9 be same, then the value of ‘a’ is
A. 3/7
B. 7/3
C. 7/9
D. 9/7
37. Using binomial theorem , the value of (0.999)3 correct to 3 decimal places is
A. 0.999
B. 0.998
C. 0.995
D. 0.997
38. If the rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 5 cm/sec, then the rate of increase of its area, when the radius is 20 cm, will be
A. 10?
B. 20?
C. 400?
D. 200?
39. The number of points in the line x++y=4 which are unit distance apart from the line 2x+2y=5
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity
40. For any complex number z, the minimum value of ?z?+?z-1? is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
WBJEE 2015 (Biology) Model Questions
1. The average diameter of Red Blood Corpuscles of man is
A. 7.2µm
B. 8.1µm
C. 9.2µm
D. 10.3µm
2. Name of a gaseous plant hormone is
A. IAA
B. Gibberellins
C. Ethylene
D. Abscisic acid
3. The life span of honey bee drone is:
A. 3-4 months
B. 1-2 months
C. 6-7 months
D. 10-12 months
4. Toprhic levels is ecosystem is formed by:
A. Only bacteria
B. Only plants
C. Organisms linked in food chain
D. Only herbivores
5. Which of the following ancestors of man first time showed bipedal movement?
A. Australopithecus
B. Cro-Magnon
C. Java apeman
D. Peking man
6. Scirpophage incertulus is an example of
A. Monophagus pest
B. Diphagus pest
C. Oligohegus pest
D. Polyphegus pest
7. The size of filteration slits of Glomerulus:
A. 10nm
B. 15nm
C. 20nm
D. 25nm
8. The scientific name of asian tiger mosquito:
A. Aedes aegypti
B. Aedes albopictus
C. Aedes taeniorhyncchus
D. Aedes albolineatus
9. The chemical nature of chromatin is as follows:
A. Nucleic acids, histone and non-histone proteins
B. Nucleic acids and non-histone proteins
C. Nucleic acids and histone proteins
D. Nucleic acids
10. Choose the minor crap from the following:
A. Cyprimus carpio
B. Labeo calbasu
C. Labeo bata
D. Ctenopharyngodon idella
11. Sporopollenin is chemically
A. Homopolysaccharide
B. Fatty substance
C. Protein
D. Heteropolysaccharide
12. Molecular scissors which cut DNA at specific site is
A. Pectinase
B. Ligase
C. polymerase
D. restriction endo nuclease
13. cellular totipotency was first demonstrated by
A. F.C. steward
B. Robert Hooke
C. T.Schwann
D. A.V.Leeuwenhock
14. The generic deficiency of ADH – receptor leads to
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Glycosuria
C. Diabetes Insippudus
D. Nephrogenic Diabetes
15. Which of the following substances yield less than 4 Kcal/mol when its phosphate bond is hydrolysed
A. Creatine Phosphate
B. ADP
C. Glucose-6-Phosphate
D. ATP
16. Goiter can occur as a consequence of all the following except
A. Grave’s disease
B. Excessive intake of exogenous thyroxime
C. Iodine deficiency
D. Pituitary adenoma
17. Generally artificial pacemaker consists of one battery made up of
A. Nickel
B. Dry Cadmium
C. Photo Sensitive material
D. Lithium
18. In AIDS, HIV kills
A. Antibody molecule
B. THELPER cell
C. Bone-marrow cells
D. TCYTOTOXIC cell
19. Graham’s Law is correlated with
A. Diffusion
B. Osmoregulation
C. Osmosis
D. Adsorption
20. Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?
A. Acetyl-choline
B. Glutamic acid
C. Epinephrine
D. Tyrosine
21. Seedless banana is
A. Multiple fruit
B. Parthenocarpic fruit
C. Drupe fruit
D. True fruit
22. The major site of protein breakdown to form free amino acids is in the
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Bone-Marrow
23. Collagen is a
A. Phosphorotein
B. Globulin
C. Derived protein
D. Sclerorotein
24. The “Repeating Unit” of glycogen is
A. Fructose
B. Mannose
C. Glucose
D. Galactose
25. Choose the correct non-protein amino acid
A. Hydroxyproline
B. Hydroxylysine
C. Cystine
D. ? amino butyric acid
26. Cells in G0 phase of cell cycle
A. Exit cell cycle
B. Enter cell cycle
C. Suspend cell cycle
D. Terminate cell cycle
27. Which of the following is the systematic insecticide
A. Malathion
B. Parathion
C. Endrin
D. Furadan
28. DNA sequence that code for protein are known as-
A. Introns
B. Exons
C. Control regions
D. Intervening sequences
29. Which is not applicable to the biological species concept?
A. Natural population
B. Reproductive isolation
C. Gene pool
D. Hybridization
30. In honey the percentage of Maltose and other sugar is
A. 9.2
B. 8.81
C. 10.5
D. 11.2
31. The wildlife protection Act was introduced in:
A. 1986
B. 1991
C. 1981
D. 1974
32. The intensity level of whispering noise is:
A. 10-15 dB
B. 20-40 dB
C. 45-50 dB
D. 50-55 dB
33. The duration of cardiac cycle is:
A. 0.8 sec
B. 0.8 µsec
C. 0.08 µsec
D. 0.008 sec
34. Mention the “Incubation Period” of P.VIVAX:
A. 10-14 days
B. 20-25 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
35. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following:
A. Air
B. Insects
C. Birds
D. Snails
36. Respiratory enzymes are present in the following organelle:
A. Peroxysome
B. Chloroplast
C. Mitochondrion
D. Lysosome
37. Which of the following is an example of man-made ecosystem?
A. Herbarium
B. Aquarium
C. Tissue culture
D. Forest
38. Which of the following Leucocytes transforms into mecrophage?
A. Basophil
B. Monocyte
C. Lymphocyte
D. Eosinopphil
39. Pellagra is caused due to deficiency of the vitamin:
A. Niacin
B. Thiamin
C. Biotin
D. Pyridoxine
40. Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
A. Substrate
B. End products
C. Enzyme
D. Intermediate end products
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