Sample Paper for CAT Exam

Jun 30 • Competition Sample Papers • 5108 Views • 2 Comments on Sample Paper for CAT Exam








Common Admission Test (CAT) is organized in India only and a computerised based test. To appear this test a person must be strong in Quantitative Ability, Verbal Ability, Logical Reasoning & Data Interpretation. This exam is started by IIM(s) and select students for admission to various business administration programs of IIMs,IITs,IISc,NITs ,FMS and few other institutions, using the result of the test. Each year CAT is conducted by one of the IIM’s, which is based on a rotation policy.One of the toughest exam.This time something has been modified in CAT exam i.e., this time CAT will have 2 sections only and additional 5 mins for the test.The first section will deal with Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation.The second section will deal with Verbal ability and Logical Reasoning.Total 30 questions from each section and 70 mins will be given separately for each section.

This is just some important things that I have mentioned, for details about the exam you can visit link CAT . Questions that are asked in CAT are very tricky but concept based questions.If the foundation is strong and time management is proper then a candidate is sure to crack this CAT exam.We have a very good application in this regard that is itest where you can take online test anytime, take an online test on CAT at itest and learn time management as well as get to know varieties of questions.

Here is the sample paper for CAT exam containing questions from all the sections which are very similar to the type of questions that come in exam

Sample paper for CAT Exam:-

Quantitative Ability:-

1) When 7700 is divided by 100 then what is the reminder ?





Ans :c

2) The total cost of 2 pencils ,5 erasers and 7 sharpeners is RS 30, while the cost of 3 pencils and 5 sharpeners is Rs 15 more than 6 erasers . By what amount does the cost of 1 sharpener and 39 erasers exceed the cost of 6 pencils ?




d)None of these

Ans : a

3) When considered as a sequence of 4 digits as a number in base 10 is four times the number it represents base 6. Then what is the sum of the digits of the sequence?





Ans :d

4) The total number of integer pairs (p, q) satisfying the equation p + q = pq is




d) None of these

Ans : b

5) If n is an integer such that the sum of the digits of n is 2  and 1010 <n<1011 then the number of different values for n is





Ans : a

6) On January 1, 2004 two new societies, SI and S2, are formed, each with n members. On the first day of each subsequent month, S1 adds b members while S2 multiplies its current number of members by a constant factor r.Both the societies have the same number of members on July 2, 2004. If =10.5n, what is the value of r?

 a) 2.9


c) 2.0


Ans : c

7) If the sum of the first 11 terms of an arithmetic progression equals that of the first l9 terms, then what is the sum of the first 30 terms?

a) 8



d)Not unique

Ans : b

8) Each family in a locality has at most two adults, and no family has fewer than 3 children. Considering all the families together, there are more adults than boys, more boys than girls, and more girls than families. Then the minimum possible number of families in the locality is





Ans : d

9)  If N = 888Dup to 100 digits, what is the remainder when N is divided by 625?





Ans : a

10) Two boats, traveling at 5 and 10 kms per hour, head directly towards each other. They begin at a distance of 20 kms from each other. How far apart are they (in kms) one minute before they collide?





Ans :b

11) If the roots of the equation (x + 1) (x + 9) + 8 = 0 are a and b, then the roots of the equation (x + a) (x + b) – 8 = 0 are

a)-3 and -5

b)cannot be determined

c)1 and 9

d) 3 and 5

Ans : c

12)  If a/b+c =b/b+c =c/b+c =r then the only value that r can take is

a)1/2 or -1


c)1/2 or 1

d)None of these

Ans :a

13) A regular polygon has an even number of sides. If the product of the length of its side and the distance between two opposite sides is 1/4th of its area, find the number of sides it has.





Ans :c

14) Consider two figures A and D that are defined in the co-ordinate plane. Each figure represents the graph of a certain function, as defined below :

A:   | x | – | y | = a

D:   | y | = d

If the area enclosed by A and D is 0, which of the following is a possible value of (a, d)?

(a)  (1,1)

(b)  (-2, 1)

(c)  (2, 1)

(d)  (3, 3)

Ans :b

15)  When the curves y = 10x and xy = 1 are drawn in the X-Y plane, how many times do they intersect for values of y ³ 2?




d) Never

Ans : a

16) Thirty-six equally spaced points – P1through P 36– are plotted on a circle, and some of these points are joined successively to form a regular polygon. How many distinct such regular polygons are possible?




d) None of these

Ans : c

17) In Nuts And Bolts factory, one machine produces only nuts at the rate of 100 nuts per minute and needs to be cleaned for 5 minutes after production of every 1000 nuts. Another machine produces only bolts at the rate of 75 bolts per minute and needs to be cleaned for 10 minutes after production of every 1500 bolts. If both the machines start production at the same time, what is the minimum duration required for producing 9000 pairs of nuts and bolts?

a)170 minutes

b) 190 minutes

c) 140 minutes

d) none of these

Ans :a

18) In a survey conducted to find out the readership of three newspapers A, B and C, it was found that the number of people who read newspaper A is at least 20 and at most 40, the number of people who read newspaper B is at least 50 and at most 70, the number of people who read newspaper C is at least 70 and at most 83. It was also found that 8 people read all the three newspapers and 85 people read at least two of the three newspapers. Find the minimum number of people who read both A and B but not C.





Ans :b

19) Three filling pipes R, S and T together, can fill an empty tank in 2 hours, S can fill the tank four times faster than T. Initially R alone is opened and after x hours, it is closed and immediately S and T are opened together. The tank is full after another y hours. If the tank was filled in a total of 4 hours, and x not equal to y then find the time (in hours) that T alone would take to fill the tank.


b) 18



Ans :d

20) A natural number n is such that 120 n = 240. If HCF of n and 240 is 1, how many values of n are possible?





Ans :a

21 ) There are twenty-five identical marbles to be divided among four brothers such that each of them gets no less than three marbles. In how many ways can the marbles be divided among the four brothers?




d)None of these

Ans :c

22) Karan and Arjun run a 100-metre race, where Karan beats  Arjun by 10 metres. To do a favour to Arjun, Karan starts 10 metres behind the starting line in a second 100-metre race. They both run at their earlier speeds. Which of the following is true in connection with the second race?

a) Karan beats Arjun by 1 metre.

b)Arjun beats Karan by 1 metre.

c)Karan beats Arjun by 11 meters.

d)Arjun beats Karan by 11metres.

Ans :a

23) .   What is the remainder when (2469 + 3268) is divided by 22?

(a)  20

(b)  11

(c)  12

(d)  5

Ans :b

24) 8.   What is the minimum value of the expression 2x2 + 3y2– 4x – 12y+ 18?





Ans :d

25)  Working together, two workers completed a job in 5 days. Had the first worker worked twice as fast and the second worker half as fast, it would have taken them 4 days to complete the job. In how many days will the first person working alone, complete the entire job?

(a)  10 days

(b)  20 days

(c)  30 days

(d)  60 days

Ans : a

Sample Paper for CAT exam has questions on Logical And data Interpretation

Logical And data Interpretation:-

Questions from  26 to 30: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:

Choose (a) : if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.

Choose (b) : if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

Choose (c )  :if the question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.

Choose (d) :if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

26) Zakib spends 30 % of his income on his children’s education, 20% on recreation and l0% on healthcare. The corresponding percentages for Supriyo are 40%,25% and 13%. Who spends more on children’s education?

A: Zakib spends more on recreation than Supriyo.

B: Supriyo spends more on healthcare than Zakib.


27) In a class of 30 students, Rashmi secured the third rank among the girl while her brother Kumar studying in the same class secured the sixth rank in the whole class. Between the two who had a better overall rank?

A: Kumar was among the top 25 % of the boys merit list in the class In which 60% were boys

B: There were three boys among the top five rank holder and three girls among the top ten rank holders.


28) Tarak is standing 2 steps to the left of a red mark and 3 steps to the right of a blue mark. He tosses a coin. If it comes up heads, he moves one step to the right; otherwise he moves one step to the left. He keeps doing this until he reaches one of the two marks, and then he stops. At which mark does he stop?

A: He stops after 21 coin tosses.

B: He obtains three more tails than heads.


39) Ravi spent less than Rs.75 to buy one kilogram each of potato, onion, and gourd. Which one of the three vegetables bought was the costliest?

A: 2 kg potato and 1 kg gourd cost less than 1 kg potato and 2 kg gourd.

B: I kg potato and 2 kg onion together cost the same as 1 kg onion and.2 kg gourd.


30) Nandini paid for an article using currency notes of denominations Rs.1, Rs.2, Rs.5 and Rs.10 using at least one note of each denomination . The total number of five and ten rupee notes used was one more than the total number of one and two rupee notes used. What was the price of the article?

A: Nandini used a total of 13 currency notes.

B: The price of the article was a multiple of Rs. 10.


Sample paper for CAT exam:-

Questions  from 31 to 34: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In Rangeela land, there are only three types of people: Lalpilas, Pilharas and Haralals. Lalpilas always get confused between red and yellow (i.e. they see yellow as red and vice versa.) and can see any other colour properly. Pilharas always get confused between yellow and green and can see any other colour properly and Haralals always get confused between red and green and can see any other colour properly.

31)  Two persons – Dhiraj and Suraj, of Rangeela land made the following statements.

Dhiraj : Feroz is wearing a red hat. Feroz is wearing a yellow shirt.

Suraj : Feroz is wearing a red hat. Feroz is wearing a green shirt.

Suraj is a

a) Pilhara

b) Haralal

c) Such a conversation is not possible

d) Lalpila

Ans : c

32) What is the colour of Basanti’s saree?





Ans : d

33) Veeru is a

a) Pilhara

b) Haralal

c)  Lalpila

d)None of these

Ans : b

34) Three persons Amar, Akbar and Anthony, who belong to Rangeela land made the following statements.

Amar : Gabbar Singh is wearing a green shirt.

Akbar : Gabbar Singh is not wearing a yellow shirt.

Anthony : Gabbar Singh is wearing a red shirt.

If none of them is a Haralal, then what is the colour of Gabbar Singh’s shirt?

a) Yellow


c) cannot be determined

d) None of these

Ans : a

DIRECTIONS for questions 35 and 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Each of the eight students Akash, Balu, Chakri, Diren, Ehsaan, Fatima, Giri and Hari, is of a different height. All of them are standing in a row in the increasing order of their heights such that the shortest person is at the extreme left. Three of them are from 1 standard, three from 2nd standard and two from 3rd standard.

(i)  Akash, the second tallest, is not from 1st standard and Balu, who is the fourth tallest is from 2nd standard.

(ii)  Ehsaan is from 2nd  standard but Chakri is not from 3rd standard.

(iii)  Hari is taller than Giri but shorter than Balu, while Diren is shorter than Akash.

(iv)  Chakri is shorter than Giri but taller than Fatima.

(v)  Neither the shortest nor the second shortest is from 1st standard.

35) Which of the following statements is definitely true?

(a)  Each 2nd standard student is next to at least one 3rd  standard student.

(b)  No two students of the same standard are adjacent to each other.

(c)  Each 3rd standard student is next to at least one 2nd  standard student.

(d)  None of the above

Ans : c

36) Which two students from the same standard are adjacent to each other?

a) Giri and Hari

b) Chakri and Balu

c) Hari and Balu

d) None of these

Ans : a

Sample paper for CAT exam has more questions for you:-

Questions from 37 to 39: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India (BCCI) is in search of a new coach for the team. Itshortlisted five persons – Anshuman, Buchanen, John, Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among Australia, India, Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of them is coaching the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, China, Wales and Bermuda, not necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about their particulars:

(i)  For any person, each of his three particulars – his name, the name of the country from which he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at present, starts with a different letter.

(ii)  Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from neither Australia nor Pakistan.

(iii)  Buchanen is not coaching China and the person who is coaching Bermuda is from Canada.

(iv)  Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan and also the person from Pakistan is coaching Bangladesh.

37)What more is from which country?

a) canada



d) Cannot be determined

Ans : d

Sample paper for CAT exam:-

38)The person from Japan is definitely not coaching

a) Wales.

b) Australia.

c) China

d) None of these

Ans : a

39) Who is the person from Australia?

a) Whatmore

b) Buchanen

c) John

d)None of These

Ans : b

Questions  from 40 to 43: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, and population studies and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.

(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories

(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent atleast one expert for each category.

(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.

(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.’

40) Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?

a) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 2 health experts from Africa attended the conference.

b) Africa and America each had 1 expert in population studies attending the conference.

c)3 experts in refugee relocation from the Americas and I health expert from Africa attended the conference.

d) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 1 health expert from Africa attended the conference.

Ans : c

41) Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?

a) Number of health experts from Europe.

b)Number of labour experts from the Americas

c) Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa

d) Number of health experts from Australasia

Ans : c

42) Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?

i. At least one.  ii. At most two:

a) Both i and ii

b) Neither i nor ii

c) Only i and not ii

d) Only ii and not I

Ans : a

43) If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about the number of experts in the conference from the four continents?

a) There is one expert in health from Africa.

b) There are two experts in health from the Americas.

c) There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.

d)There are three experts in refugee relocation from the Americas.

Ans : b

Questions from 44 to 47: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A team must be selected from ten probables – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A, C, E and J are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders.

Further the following conditions need to be observed:

  •  The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.
  •  If the team includes J, it must also include F.
  • The team must include E or B, but not both.
  •  If the team includes G, it must also include F.
  •  The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.
  •  C and F cannot be members of the same team.
  • D and H cannot be members of the same team.
  •  The team must include both A and D or neither of them.
  • There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.

44)   What can be the size of the team that includes C?





Ans : a

45)   What would be the size of the largest possible team?





Ans : d

46)    What could be the size of the team that includes G?




d) More than one of the above

Ans : d

Sample paper for CAT exam:-

47)   Who cannot be included in a team of size 6?





Ans : a

Questions from 48 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr Suzuki, a car dealer, sold cars of only two brands, A and B, in the previous year. This year, he introduced a new brand, C. The number of cars of brand A and brand B sold in the previous year were in the ratio 3 : 2, and the ratio of the number of cars sold in the previous year to that sold in this year is 2 : 3 for brand A and 2 : 5 for brand B. Further, the number of cars of brand C sold this year forms 81% of the total number of cars sold this year.

48) What is the percentage increase in the total number of cars sold this year when compared to the total number of cars sold in the previous year?


b) 400%



Ans :d

49)  Find the number of cars of brand C sold this year, given that a total of 24 cars of brand A were sold in the previous year.

a) 324




Ans : a

50)   In the next year, Mr.Suzuki wants to increase the total sales by 80%, compared to the total sales this year, by keeping the sales of each of A, B and C at the same level as that in this year and introducing a new brand D. By what percent will the number of cars of brand D (to be sold next year) be more than the total number of cars sold last year?





Ans : d

Sample paper for CAT exam has questions on verbal ability:-

Verbal Ability :

Questions from 51 to 53: Each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option, from those given below the statement, to make up the missing part.

51)   The sheer grandeur of the colosseum – the iconic face of Rome today – even in a ruined state ______, the favourite blood sport of the Roman nobility.

(a)  might take one’s breath away had it not been for the knowledge that this was the venue of many a gruesome gladiatorial fights

(b) might have taken one’s breath away would it not be for the knowledge that this was the venue to many a gruesome gladiatorial fights

(c)  might have taken one’s breath away had it not been for the knowledge that this was the venue of many a gruesome gladiatorial fight

(d)  might have taken one’s breath away would it not be for the knowledge that this was the venue to many a gruesome gladiatorial fight


52) Our misapprehension _________ has been afflicted.

(a)  with the nature of language occasioned a greater waste of time, effort and genius, than all the other mistakes and delusions with which humanity

(b)  of the nature of language has occasioned a greater waste of time, effort, and genius than all the other mistakes and delusions with which humanity

(c)  about the nature of language has occasioned a greater waste of time, effort and genius, than the other mistakes and delusions with which humanity

(d)  with the nature of language has occasioned a greater waste of time, and effort, and genius, than the other mistakes and delusions with which humanity


53)   Evolutionary game theory is ________ about why human cognitive and emotional traits developed as they did.

(a)  is not just useful in providing an explanation for how social instincts may have developed in primates and man but also in telling something

(b)  is useful not just in providing an explanation of how social instincts may have developed in primates and man but also in telling something

(c)  is useful not just in providing an explanation on how social instincts may have developed in primates and man but also in telling something

(d)  is useful not just in providing an explanation for how social instincts may have developed in primates and man but also in telling us something.


Questions 54  to 56: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. From among the five choices given below each question, choose the most logical order of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.

54) (A)  In Canada, however, victims’ rights groups and community campaigns mounted sustained pressure on the government.

(B)  The report slammed Canada’s security services for a series of staggering failures they committed in the months leading up to the bombing, and for the botched investigation that followed it.

(C) Twenty-five years ago, Air India flight 182 from Montreal to New Delhi exploded over the Irish sea, killing all 329 on board.

(D) Earlier this month, their relentless work fielded results when a commission of inquiry led by a retired Canadian Supreme Court Judge, John Major, published its findings.

(E) Even though most of the victims were Indian nationals or of Indian origin, the tragedy disappeared from the fore-ground of public consciousness with a strange speed-displaced perhaps by the succession of horrors that have scarred the country since then.

(a)  CAEDB

(b)  CEBAD

(c)  CADBE

(d)  CEADB


sample paper for CAT exam has some more questions:-

55) (A)  We think back with an element of nostalgia to that earlier dream of a world in which we were promised accurate prediction, control and endless progress.

(B)  Add to this a host of other problems we encounter and things do seem to be in a mess.

(C)  We feel today that we are living in a world that is constantly in crisis.

(D)  In the face of all this we feel a burning need for corrective action, for major interventions, government legislation, aid programmes.

(E)  All around us newspapers and television warn of global warming and environmental degradation, of terrorism and international conflicts, of Third World poverty and the implications of the recent economic slump.

(a)  CEDAD

(b)  CEBDA

(c)  CAEBD

(d)  CEBAD


56) (A)  Opinions differ but I am convinced this is a good thing.

(B)  Your government may not prosecute you for the crimes you have committed but if your offences are serious enough, the chances are that some court in some other country might.

(C)  Every country that values the rule of law must ensure that no individual, regardless of official affiliation, enjoys impunity.

(D)  Even if legal concepts like universal jurisdiction remain controversial, the globalisation of economic and family life means individuals who violate human rights can no longer count on being shielded forever by the walls of national sovereignty.

(E)  As Israeli officers and politicians are today discovering, and as the late Chilean dictator Augusto Pinochet realised in 2000, international journeys are an indulgence to be undertaken with extreme caution if your curriculum vitae includes the commission of war crimes, genocide or crimes against humanity.

(a)  CDAEB

(b)  DCBEA

(c)  CABED

(d)  DBEAC


sample paper for CAT exam has some more questions:-

Questions 57 to 58: Each question presents a paragraph followed by 5 statements marked A to E. Read all and

identify the individual statements as:

L  –  if the statement can be logically concluded from the paragraph.

C  –  if the statement presents a thought or idea contrary to that presented in the paragraph.

F  –  if the statement is a far-fetched conclusion or inference from the paragraph.

I  –  if the statement is irrelevant to the context of the para or is not L, C or F.

Select the answer option that best describes the set of 5 statements.

57)   Some flowering plant species, entirely dependent on bees for pollination, lure their pollinators with abundant nectar and pollen, which are the only source of food for bees. Often the pollinating species is so highly adapted that it can feed from-and thus pollinate only a singles pecies of plant. Similarly, some plants pecies have evolved flowers that only a single species of bee can pollinate-an arrangement that places the plant species at great risk of extinction. If careless applications of pesticides destroy the pollinating bee species, the plant species itself can no longer reproduce.

(A) The total extinction of some plants would force certain bees to mutate so as to adapt to plants that remain.

(B)  If the sole pollinator of a certain plant species is in no danger of extinction, the plant species it pollinates is also unlikely to become extinct.

(C) Some bees are able to gather pollen and nectar from any species of plant.

(D) The blossoms of most species of flowering plants attract some species of bees and do not attract others.

(E) The total destruction of the habitat of some plant species could cause some bee species to become extinct.

(a)  FLCFL

(b)  CLIIL

(c)  ILCFL

(d)  FLCIL


57)  Decision makers tend to have distinctive styles. One such style is for the decision maker to seek the widest possible input from advisers and to explore alternatives while making up his or her mind. In fact, decision makers of this sort will often argue vigorously for a particular idea, emphasizing its strong points and downplaying its weaknesses, not because they actually believe in the idea but because they want to see if their real reservations about it are idiosyncratic or are held independently by their advisers.

(A) If certain decision makers’ statements are quoted accurately and at length, the content of the quote could nonetheless be greatly at variance with the decision eventually made.

(B) Certain decision makers do not know which ideas they should believe in until after they have presented a variety of ideas to their advisers.

(C)  If certain decision makers dismiss an idea out of hand, it must be because its weaknesses are more pronounced than any strong points it may have.

(D)  Certain decision makers proceed in a way that makes it likely that they will frequently decide in favour of those ideas that they convince their advisors of.

(E) If certain decision makers’ advisers know the actual beliefs of those they advise, those advisers will give better advice than they would if they did not know those beliefs.

(a)  FIICI

(b)  LFCCI

(c)  LFICI

(d)  FFCCI


58)   If the regulation of computer networks is to be modelled on past legislation, then its model must be either legislation regulating a telephone system or else legislation regulating a publicbroadcasting service. If the telephone model is used, computer networks will be held responsible only for ensuring that messagesget transmitted. If the public broadcast model is used, computer networks will additionally be responsible for the content of those messages. Yet a computer network serves both these sorts of functions: it can serve as a private message service or as a publicly accessible information service. Thus neither of these models can, through replication, be appropriate for computer networks.

(A)  Regulation of computer networks is required in order to ensure the privacy of the messages transmitted through such networks.

(B)  The regulation of computer networks should not be modelled on any past legislation.

(C)  Computer networks were developed by being modelled on both telephone systems and television networks.

(D)  Legislators who do not have extensive experience with computers should not attempt to write legislation regulating computer networks.

(E)  Legislation to regulate computer networks merely needs to duplicate those that regulate telephone systems and public broadcasting systems, read together.

(1)  IFIFC

(2)  LFIFC

(3)  LLIFF

(4)  FLCLF


Some more questions “sample paper for CAT exam”

Questions from 59  to 63: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.

On August 23, 1989, officials from the newly reformed and soon-to-berenamed Communist Party of Hungary ceased policing the country’s militarized border with Austria. Some 13,000 East Germans, many of whom had been vacationing at nearby Lake Balaton, fled across the frontier to the free world. It was the largest breach of the Iron Curtain in a generation, and it kicked off a remarkable chain of events that ended 11 weeks later with the righteous citizen dismantling of the Berlin Wall.Twenty years later, the anniversary of that historic border crossing was noted in exactly four American newspapers, according to the Nexis database, and all four mentions were in reprints of a single syndicated column. August anniversaries receiving more media play in the U.S. include the 400th anniversary of Galileo building his telescope, the 150 anniversary of the first oil well, and the 25th  nniversary of Teenage Mutant Ninja Turtles. A Google News search of “anniversary” and “freedom” on August 23, 2009, turned up scores of Woodstock references before the first mention of Hungary.Get used to it, if you haven’t already. November 1989 was the most liberating month of arguably the most liberating year in human history, yettwo decades later the country that led the Cold War coalition against communism seems less interested than ever in commemorating, let alone processing the lessons from, the collapse of its longtime foe. At a time that fairly cries out for historical perspective about the follies of central planning, Americans are ignoring the fundamental conflict of the postwar world.The consensus Year of Revolution for most of our lifetimes has been 1968, with its political assassinations, its Parisian protests, and a youth-culture rebellion that the baby boomers will never tire of telling us about. But as the pre-eminent modern Central European historian Timothy Garton Ash wrote in a 2008 essay, 1989 “ended communism in Europe, the Soviet empire, the division of Germany, and an ideological and geopolitical struggle…that had shaped world politics for half a century.” Without the superpower conflict to animate and arm scores of proxy civil wars and brutal governments, authoritarians gave way to democrats in Johannesburg and Santiago, endless war was replaced by enduring peace in Central America, and nations that had never enjoyed self-determination found themselves independent, prosperous, and integrated into the West. “It was”, continues Garton, “in its geopolitical results, as big as 1945 or 1914. Bycomparison, ’68 was a molehill.” Perhaps ’68 still gets all the headlines because it happened to more people in the West.There was much more that changed. The abject failure of top-down central planning as an economic organizing model had a profound impact even on the few communist governments that survived the ’90s. Vietnam, while maintaining a one-party grip on power, launched radical market reforms in 1990, resulting in some of the world’s highest economic growth in the last two decades. Cuba, economically desperate after the Soviet spigot was cut off, legalized foreign investment and private commerce. And in perhaps the single most dramatic geopolitical story in recent years, China, the country that most symbolized state repression in 1989 has used capitalism to pull off history’s most successful anti-poverty campaign.Perhaps the least appreciated benefits of the Cold War’s end have been those enjoyed (if not always consciously) by the side that won. Up until 1989, mainstream Western European political thought included a large and unhealthy appetite for governments owning the means of production. For instance, French President Francois Mitterand nationalized wide swaths of France’s economy upon taking office in 1981. By the time the Berlin Wall fell, it was the rule, not the exception, that Western European governments would own all their country’s major airlines, phone companies, television stations, gas companies, and much more.No longer. In the long fight between Karl Marx and Milton Friedman, even the democratic socialists of Europe had to admit that Friedman won in a landslide. Although media attention was rightly focused on the dramatic economic changes transforming Asia and the former East Bloc, fully half of the world’s privatisation in the first dozen years after the Cold War, as measured by revenue, took place in Western Europe. European political and monetary integration has turned out to be one of the biggest engines for economic liberty in modern history. It was no accident that, in the midst of Washington’s illegal and ill-fated bailout of U.S. automakers, Swedish Enterprise Minister Maud Olofsson, when asked about the fate of strugglingSaab, tersely announced, “The Swedish state is not prepared to own car factories.”With no Cold War to prod it, the United States, at least as represented by its elected officials and their economic policies, is no longer leading the global fight for democratic capitalism as the most proven path to human liberation. You are more likely to see entitlement reform in Rome than in Washington (where, against the global grain, the federal government is trying to extend its role).Ironically, the one consistent lesson U.S. officials claim to have learned about the Cold War is the one that has the least applicability outside the erstwhile East Bloc: that aggressive and even violent confrontation with evil regimes will lead to various springtimes for democracy. It is telling that the victors of an epic economic and spiritual struggle take away conclusions that are primarily military. Telling, and tragic. 59)   We can infer, when the author tells us that the 20th  anniversary of the Hungarian border crossing was paid less attention than various other anniversaries, that he feels

(a)  that the west is forgetting the significance of the end of the Cold War.

(b) that the west is gradually forgetting the Cold War.

(c)  that the telescope, the oil well, Ninja Turtles and Woodstock, are more relevant to life today than that crossing was.

(d)  that it wasn’t as significant an event as it first seemed


60)   Which one of the following is NOT among Garton’s thoughts about 1989?

(a) It was a year when Soviet power was dismantled.

(b)  It was a year when a nation was re-united with its neighbore.

(c)  It was a year as important 1914 .

(d)  It was a year when a long-running conflict between credos ended


61)   Which of the following does the author feel is a post-Cold War lesson that America may have learnt?

(a)  That, under certain circumstances, democracy can be born out of aggression.

(b)  That without superpower conflict, the world is actually more peaceful.

(c)  That the State must play a greater role in the support of private enterprise.

(d)  That democratic capitalism is the most proven path to human liberation.


62)   Which of the following does the author feel is a post-Cold War lesson that America has not learnt?

(a)  That the capitalist method can be applied even in rigidly controlled economies.

(b)  That radical economic reform can result in spectacular growth rate.

(c)  That there are inadequacies in the system of central planning.

(d)  That State ownership of enterprise is fraught with risk.


63)   The author uses the word ‘telling’ twice, towards the end of the last paragraph, in describing a situation. What does he mean to convey with the use of this word?

(a)  The situation is indicative of the priorities of the U.S. administration.

(b)  The U.S. administration recognised that the situation was relevant only to the erstwhile East bloc.

(c) The U.S. administration and its officials have not looked beyond the situation that was apparent to them.

(d)  That political and military strength are the priorities of the U.S. administration.


Questions from  64 to 66: In each of the following questions, the word at the top is used in five different ways, numbered 1 to 5. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

64)    AIR

(a)  Open the windows and let the fresh air in.

(b)  It takes two hours by air to reach Chennai from Hyderabad.

(c)  The appetizing aroma wafting through air stirred up our appetite.

(d)  Her colleagues resent her as she always puts on airs.

Ans :c

65)   BACK

(a)  He intends to purchase a house in a non-descript village in the back of beyond.

(b)  A true friend never turns his back from you when you need his help.

(c)  We decided to keep the plan on the back burner due to paucity of funds.

(d)  She is not the sort to back away from responsibilities.

Ans :b

66)   GET

(a)  She is forever under the impression that everybody is out to get him.

(b)  He is finding it difficult to get by on his meagre income.

(c)  He managed to get round his father to give him some extra pocket money.

(d)  The students were eagerly waiting to get over the exams.

Ans :d

Questions from 67  to  69 : In each question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicised and highlighted. From the italicised and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.

67)    (i)  According to media reports the accident occurred (A) /happened (B) at about 11:30 a.m.

(ii)  Caution should be exercised while handling electric (A) /electrical (B) equipment.

(iii)  Abdul is a carpenter by trade (A) / profession (B).

(iv)  Apart from the brilliant storyline, the excellent sound and light

(A) / lighting (B) effects of the movie made it worth watching.

(v)  He produced a brilliant feint (A) / faint (B) and thrust the ball into the net.

(a)  BABBA

(b)  AABBA

(c)  ABBAA

(d)  ABABA

Ans :d

68)   (i)  The rapid (A) / swift (B) action taken by the local police in nabbing the notorious burglar was widely appreciated.

(ii)  He categorically stated that no further (A) / farther (B) discussion would be entertained on the matter.

(iii)  Today’s women prefer a modern kitchen with all the latest gadgets (A) / appliances (B).

(iv)  I am not averse (A) / adverse (B) to working extra hours.

(v)  He vowed to avenge (A) / revenge (B) his sister’s death.

(a)  AAAAA

(b)  BAAAA


(d)  BABAA

Ans :b

69)   (i)  The venal (A) / venial (B) official’s corrupt deeds were exposed by the media.

(ii)  The imminent (A) / eminent (B) threat of a civil war looms large in the country.

(iii)  Mahatma Gandhi was an apostate (A) / apostle (B) of nonviolence.

(iv) John is a very gregarious (A) / egregious (B) person, quite the opposite of his reclusive brother.

(v) It is believed that the new government might abnegate (A) / abrogate (B) the treaty.

(a)   AAAA

(b)  AAABA

(c)  AABAB

(d)  BAAAA

Ans :c

Questions from 70 and 71: In each of the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

70)  PULL

(a)  Being a charismatic leader that he is, he can certainly pull the crowds.

(b)  I decided to pull away from the venture due to differences of opinion with my partners.

(c) Pull aside the curtains and let in some fresh air.

(d)  The municipal corporation has decided to pull down all illegal constructions in the city.


71)   SHADE

(a)  The weary traveller rested for a while in the shade of a tree.

(b)  Abdul is a dubious character who is suspected of being involved in several shady deals.

(c)  Nina’s bedroom was painted in a soft shade of pink.

(d)  The people in the strife torn region have been living in the shade of fear for several years.


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