# RPET Sample Papers

Jul 1 • Engineering Sample Papers • 2042 Views • 2 Comments on RPET Sample Papers

Rajasthan Technical University conducts RPET(Rajasthan Pre-Entrance Test) for all those students who wants to seek admission to courses like Engineering.Various govt. colleges and many private colleges comes under this.Its a state level exam.The question paper contains questions from physics,chemistry as these two are compulsory papers to appear and optional papers include chemistry,bio-technology,biology,computer science.A candidate is suppose to appear for any one subject from the optional papers.Total 120 questions are asked.In RPET questions will be from physics,chemistry,mathematics that is 40 questions from each subject.There will be no negative marking and one mark will be awarded for each correct answer.

Well if a candidate has clear concepts regarding physics,chem and maths in 11th and 12th then one can easily crack the exam. One just need to practice for time management as some questions are lengthy or tricky so may take some time to solve.We have an excellent application for the candidates to help them prepare for the exam that is itest. Interested candidates can take an online test on RPET at itest and  can check where they stand, which will help them to improve themselves.

RPET sample papers contains very similar questions that come in exam.One must go through it.

RPET Sample papers :-

Physics:

1) A man walks in rain with a velocity of 5 km/hr. The rain drops strike at him at an angle of 45with the horizontal. The downward velocity of the rain drops will be

(a) 5 km/hr                       (b) 4 km/hr

(c) 3 km/hr                      (d) 1 km/hr

2) The shortest time over which a car can be brought to rest by applying brakes is 10 second. If its speed is made two times, the car can be brought to rest in time t equal to

(a) 10 sec                       (b) 15 sec

(c) 20 sec                       (d) 5 sec

3) A fireman of mass 50 kg is holding a vertical pole. The coefficient of static friction between his hands and the pole is 0.5. If he is able to climb up the pole what is the minimum force with which he should press the pole with his hand

(a) 1000 N                            (b) 500 N

(c) 250 N                             (d) 350 N

4) A trolley of mass 100 kg is moving with 20 m/sec, sand is poured into it at the rate of 60 kg per minute. How much force is required to keep it moving with same speed

(a) 20 N                            (b) 10 N

(c) zero                             (d) 5 N

5) If the coefficient of restitution be 0.5 what is the percentage loss of energy on each rebounding of a ball dropped from a height

(a) 12.5%                           (b) 25%

(c) 50%                              (d) 75%

6) Two man are carrying a uniform bar of length L, on their shoulders. The bar is held horizontally such that younger man gets one-third load. Suppose the younger man is at the end of the bar, what is the distance of the other man from that end

(a) L/3                                   (b) L/2

(c) 2L/3                                 (d) 3L/4

7) What is the maximum speed at which a car can turn round a curve of 30 m radius on a level road if the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4 and g = 10 m/sec

(a) 5 m/sec                                (b) 11 m/sec

(c) 17 m/sec                             (d) 21 m/sec

8) A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. Which of the following statement about its motion is true

(a) the body is in equilibrium                       (b) no work is done on the body

(c) the tangential acceleration is not zero    (d) the velocity of the body is constant

9) The mass of a planet is double the mass of earth and its radius is half as compared to that of the earth the acceleration due to gravity at the planet is. (Assuming g = 10 m/secon earth surface)

(a) 40 m/sec2

(b) 20 m/sec2

(c) 10 m/sec2

(d) 80 m/sec2

10) A rifle bullet loses 1/20 th of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least number of such planks required just to stop the bullet is

(a) 5                    (b) 10

(c) 11                 (d) 20

11) Liquid flows through a horizontal tube of variable diameter. The pressure is maximum where

(a) velocity is minimum             (b) velocity is maximum

(c) diameter is maximum         (d) both velocity and diameter are maximum

12)  A wooden cube floats in water with 2 cm of it above the water level. When a 200 g mass is placed on the cube, it just submerges in water. The length of each side of the cube is

(a) 6 cm                       (b) 8 cm

(c) 10 cm                     (d) 12 cm

13) One mole of an ideal gas requires 207 Joule heat to rise the temperature by 10 K when heated at constant pressure. If the same gas is heated at constant volume to raise the temperature by the same 10 K the heat required is (Given the gas constant R = 8.3 J/mol K)

(a) 198.7 J                (b) 29 J

(c) 215.3 J                 (d) 124 J

14) One glass of milk gives a boy 5000 calories. How much height he can climb by using this energy, if his efficiency is 28%? (mass of boy is 60 kg)

(a) 2.5 m                    (b) 5 m

(c) 10 m                    (d) 15 m

15) The rates of cooling of two identical liquids put in exactly similar calorimeters and kept in identical surroundings are the same if

(a) the masses of the liquid are equal

(b) equal masses of the liquids at the same temperature are taken.

(c) different volumes of the liquids

(d) equal volumes of the liquids at the same temperature are taken.

16) The length and radii of two rods made of same material are in the ratio 1 : 2 and 2 : 3 respectively. If the temperature difference between the ends for the two rod be same, then in the steady state the amount of heat flowing per second through them will be in the ratio

(a) 1 : 3               (b) 4 : 3

(c) 8 : 9              (d) 3 : 2

17) The kinetic energy of one gram molecule of a gas at normal temperature and pressure is (R = 8.31 J/mole – k)

(a) 0.56 x104 J

(b)1.3 x 102  Js

(c )2.7 x 102 J

(d)3.4 x 103 J

18) Steam is passed into 22 g of water at 200C. The mass of water that will be present when the water acquires a temperature of 900C (Lalent heat of steam is 540 cal/g) is

(a) 24.8 g                          (b) 24 g

(c) 36.6 g                           (d) 30.0 g

19) A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 50 N/m2from a volume of 10m3to a volume of 4m3. Energy of 100 Joule is then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy is

(a) increased by 400 J                   (b) increased by 200 J

(c) increased by 100 J                   (d) decreased by 200 J

20) A body floats in water with one fourth of its volume above the surface of water. If placed in oil it floats with one third of its volume above the surface of oil. The specific gravity of the oil is

(a) 2/3                                  (b) 3/4

(c) 4/3                                  (d) 9/8

Chemistry:

RPET Sample papers

21) 50gm of saturated aqueous solution of potassium chloride at 300C is evaporated to dryness, when 13.2 gm of dry KCl was obtained.  The solubility of KCl in water at 300 C is

(a) 35.87 g             (b) 25.62 g

(c) 28.97 g             (d) 27.81 g

22)  92U235belongs to group III B of periodic table. If it loses one -particle, then the new element will belong to group.

(a) I B                            (b) III B

(c) II B                            (d) IV B

23) According to Bohr’s theory the energy required for an electron in He+ion to be emitted from n = 2 state is

(a) 10.2 eV                         (b) 13.6eV

(c) 3.4 eV                          (d) 27.2 eV

24) One mole of potassium dichromate completely oxidises which of the following number of mole(s) of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium.

(a) 1                  (b) 4

(c) 2                   (d) 6

25)  An alkane C5H gives only one monochloro substitution product. It is

(a) 2,2-dimethyl propane               (b) 3-methyl pentane

(c) Isopentane                               (d) Either of these

26) A chemist wishes to prepare a buffer solution of pH = 2.90 that efficiently resists a change in pH yet contains only small concentration of buffering agent. Which one of the following weak acid along with its salt would be best to use.

(a) m-clolorobenzoic acid (pKa= 3.98)

(b) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58)

(c) 2, 5-dihydroxybenzoic acid (pKa= 2.97)

(d) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pKa= 4.41)

27) C – Cl bond of cholorobenzene in comparision to C – Cl bond of methyl chloride is

(a) longer and weaker          (b) Shorter and stronger

(c) Shorter and weaker          (d) Longer and stronger

28) The ion which when added to silver nitrate does not produce a precipitate.

(a) I

(b) F

(c) CrO42-

(d) CO2-3

29) The first five ionization energies of an element are respectively 801, 2428, 3661, 25033 and 32836 in KJ/mol then the element could be

(a) A halogen              (b) A third group element

(c) A noble gas           (d) A second group element

30) For the gas phase decomposition, A -> 2B, the rate constant is 6.93 x 10-3 min-1 at 300K. The percentage of A remaining at the end of 300 minutes is

(a) 75                    (b) 50

(c) 25                   (d) 12.5

31) The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations X, Y & Z are 0.52, -3.03 and -1.18 V respectively.  The order of reducing power of corresponding metals is

(a) Y > Z > X                 (b) X > Y > Z

(c) Z > Y > X                (d) Z > X > Y

32) pKa (NH+4) = 9.26. 500 mL of 0.01 M NH4OH solution will have pH = 8.26 if X mol of (NH4)2SO4 is added. X is

(a) 005 mol               (b) 0.005 mol

(c) 0.025 mol           (d) 0.10 mol

33) Which halide is not oxidized by MnO2 ?

(a) F              (b) Br

(c) Cl             (d) I

34) 30 gm AgNO3 is added with 0.37 mole of KCl. The no. of moles of ppt produced will be [atomic wt. of Ag = 108]

(a) 0.37                      (b) 0.1765

(c) 0.2572                 (d) 0.739

35) What is the equivalent weight of MnO2  when it reacts with dil. HCl and liberates ClGas [atomic weight of Cl = 35.5, Mn = 55]

(a) 43.5                        (b) 87

(c) 21.75                       (d) none of these

36) Oxidation no. of chlorine atoms in Ca(OCl)Cl

(a) – 1                 (b) +1, – 1

(c)  0                    (d) – 1, 0

37) The Cl – C – Cl bond angle in 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrachloro ethene and tetrachloro methane respectively will be about

(a) 1200 and 109.50

(b) 900 and 109.50

(c) 109.50 and 1200

(d) 109.50 and 900

38) The pairs of compounds which cannot exist together in solution is

(a) NaHCO3 and NaOH

(b) Na2CO3CH  and NaOH

(c) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3

(d)NaHCO and NaCl

39) The hydration energy of Mg is greater than

(a) Al3+                (b) Na+

(c) Be2+              (d) Mg3+

40) What will be the % of N2H4 that has reacted with water in solution, when 0.32 gm of N2H4 are dissolved in water and the total volume was made 4L (given kb for N2H4 = 6 x 10-8 m)

(a) 3 %                   (b) 3.6 %

(c) 2 %                  (d) 0.489%

41) The dipole moments of diatomic molecules AB and CD are 10.41 and 10.27 Debye respectively while their bond distances are 2.82 & 2.67 A0 respectively. Then

(a) Bonding is nearly covalent in both the molecules.

(b) Bonding is 100% ionic in both the molecule.

(c) AB has more ionic character than CD.

(d) AB has lesser ionic bond character than CD.

Mathematics:

RPET sample papers

42) A square matrix A is invertible if detA is equal to

(a) 0                 (b) 1

(c) non zero    (d) –1

43) Which of the following is not true

(a) Every skew-symmetric matrix of odd order is non-singular

(b) If determinant of a square matrix is non-zero, then it is non-singular

(c) Adjoint of a symmetric matrix is symmetric

(d) Adjoint of a diagonal matrix is diagonal

44) If the system of equations kx + 3y – 4z = 0, x – ky + z = 0, 5x + 4y – 3z = 0 has a non – zero solution, then k =

(a) – 2, 6              (b) 1, -5

(c) – 1, 5              (d) none of these.

45) The quadratic equation 8sec2 x – 6sec x + 1 = 0 has

(a) infinitely many roots       (b) exactly two roots

(c) exactly four roots            (d) no root.

46) If (x + 1) is a factor of x4 + (p – 3)x3 – (3p – 5)x2 + (2p – 9)x + 6, then the value of P is

(a) -4               (b) 0

(c) 4                (d) 2

47) The number of ways in which four letters can be selected from the word ‘APSARA’

(a) 2                (b) 7

(c) 5               (d) 10

48) The number of diagonals that can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon is

(a) 28               (b) 48

(c) 20              (d) none

49) There are 10 roads to a village from a town.  The number of different ways in which a villager  can go to a town and return back is

(a) 25              (b) 20

(c) 10             (d) 100

50) From a group of 7 men and 7 ladies, a committee of 6 person is formed, x probability that the committee will consist of exactly 2 ladies is

(a)4/11

(b)3/11

(c)2/11

(d)5/11

51) If 6 boys and 6 girls sit in a row randomly then the probability that all the 6 girls sit together is

(a)1/61

(b)3/61

(c)1/132

(d)3/132

52) If abc = 8 and a, b, c > 0, then the minimum value of (2 + a) (2 + b) (2 + c) is

(a) 32             (b) 64

(c) 8              (d) 10

53) The sum of 19 terms of an A.P., whose nthterms is 2n + 1 is

(a) 390              (b) 399

(c) 499               (d) none of these

54)If the first term of a G.P. is 1 and the sum of the third and fifth terms is 90.  Then the common ratio if G.P. is

(a)  1            (b)  2

(c)  3           (d)  4

55) The total number of real roots of the equation 2x4 + 5x2 + 3 = 0 is

(a) 4              (b) 0

(c) 2              (d) 3

56) A square matrix A = [aij]n xn is called a lower triangular matrix if aij = 0 for

(a) i = j         (b) i < j

(c) i > j          (d) none of these

57) If A, B and C be the three square matrices such that A = B + C, then det A is equal to

(a) det B + det C            (b) det B

(c) det C                        (d) none of these

58) If the radii of the circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral triangle are respectively 12cm and 8cm, each side is equal to

(a) 20 cm            (b) 28 cm

(c) 24 cm            (d) 32 cm

59) The number of values of x satisfying the condition sinx + sin 5x = sin 3x in the interval [0,1 ] is

(a) 6                       (b) 2

(c) 10                      (d) 0

60) If 2cos x + 2 cos 3x = cos y, 2 sin x + 2sin 3x = sin y, then the value of cos 2x is

(a) – 7/8

(b)1/8

(c)- 1/8

(d) 7/8

61) (a – d)  (b – c) + (b – d)  (c – a) + (c – d)  (a – b) is

(a) independent of a                     (b) independent of b

(c) independent of c                     (d) independent of d

62)In a class 30% students fail in English, 20% students fail in Hindi and 10% students fail in English and Hindi both A student is chosen at random then the chance that he will fail in English if he has failed in Hindi is

(a)2/3

(b)1/2

(c)1/3

(d)3/4

63) If A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB and both defined then

(a) A and B are two matrices not necessarily of same order

(b) A and B are square matrices of same order

(c) Number of columns of A = number of rows of B

(d) None of these

64) AB is a vertical pole. The end A is on the level ground, C is the middle point of AB. P is a point on the level ground.The portion BC subtends an angle  at P.  If AP = 2AB, then tan is

(a)2/9

(b)1/9

(c)1/3

(d)none of these

65) A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the opposite bank is Pie/3, when retreats back 40m from the bank he finds the angle to be Pie/6. Then breadth of the rivers is (height of the man may be neglected)

(a) 40 m              (b) 60 m

(c) 20 m             (d) 30 m

66) The straight line passing through the point of intersection of the straight lines x – 3y + 1 = 0 and 2x + 5y – 9 = 0 and having infinite slope and at a distance 2 units from the origin has the equation

(a) x = 2                  (b) 3x + y – 1 = 0

(c) y = 1                 (d) none of these.

67) The number of quadratic equations which remains unchanged by squaring their roots is

(a) 2                  (b) 4

(b) 6                 (d) Infinite many

68) If the letters of the word ‘DATE’ be permuted and the words so formed be arranged as in a dictionary.Then the rank of ‘DATE’ is

(a) 12           (b) 13

(c) 14            (d) 8

69) How many nine digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 2, 2, 3, 3, 5, 5, 8, 8, 8 so that  the odd digits occupy even positions ?

(a) 7560             (b) 180

(c) 16                 (d) 60

70) In an examination, a candidate is required to pass four different subjects.  The numbers of ways he can fail is

(a) 4               (b) 10

(c) 15             (d) 24

(1)a   (2)c   (3)a   (4)a   (5)a  (6)d  (7)b   (8)b  (9)d   (10)c  (11)c  (12)c  (13)d   (14)c   (15)d   (16)c

(17)d   (18)a   (19)a   (20)d  (21)a  (22)b   (23)b  (24)c  (25)a   (26)c  (27)b  (28)b  (29)b  (30)d

(31)a   (32)c  (33)a   (34)b   (35)a   (36)b   (37)a  (38)a   (39)b  (40)d   (41)d  (42)c  (43)a   (44)d

(45)d   (46)c   (47)b   (48)c   (49)d  (50)c  (51)d   (52)b   (53)b   (54)c  (55)b   (56)b   (57)d  (58)c

(59)a   (60)a  (61)d   (62)b   (63)c   (64)a   (65)c  (66)b   (67)a   (68)d  (69)d  (70)c

RPET Sample papers

RPET Sample paper for phy and chem-1

RPET Sample Paper for phy and chem-2

RPET Sample papers for Maths

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1. sooraj says:

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