SSC Sample Paper

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Mar 20 • Competition Sample Papers • 8633 Views • 9 Comments on SSC Sample Paper

Staff Selection Commission ( SSC ) is an Indian organization that recruits staffs for the various posts of various Ministries and Departments of the Government of India and also in the Subordinate Offices.

This commission is an attached office of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) consisting of a Chairman, two Members and a Secretary – cum – Controller of Examinations.

The Staff Selection Commission ( SSC ) has its headquarters at New Delhi. At present, there are seven working Regional Offices. They are  at Allahabad, Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Guwahati, Chennai, Bangalore and two Sub – Regional Offices at Raipur and Chandigarh. Each of the Regional Office is headed by a Regional Director and each of the Sub – Regional office is headed by a Deputy Director.

SSC Sample Paper in complete accordance with the current patternThe exam conducted by them is a very prestigious exam. Getting through this exam is a very precious thing. So we have provided here a sample paper which is in complete accordance with the current pattern of the SSC exam along with the respective answers, especially for the aspirants of SSC.

Please provide your kind comments and suggestions in the comment box below.

Reasoning

Direction: In the following questions select the related letter / word / number from the given alternatives

1. AGMS : CIOU : : DJPV : ?

(a) BHNY
(b) STUV
(c) FLRX
(d) MNOP

2. 85 : 42 : : 139 : ?

(a) 68
(b) 69
(c) 70
(d) 67

3. CAT : DDY :: BIG : ?

(a) CLL
(b) CLM
(c) CML
(d) CEP

Directions: In each of the following questions find the odd number from the given alternatives.

4.

(a) 111
(b) 242
(c) 551
(d) 383

5.

(a) 80-9
(b) 64-8
(c) 36-6
(d) 7-49

Direction: In each of the following questions a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

6. ASY, BRX, CQW, …………

(a) DVP
(b) DPV
(c) PDV
(d) PQD

7. 56, 42, 30, 20, ?, 6

(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 14

8. Y, S, N, J, G, ………

(a) F
(b) E
(c) H
(d) I

9. A, c, f, j, ?, ?

(a) ou
(b) mo
(c) lp
(d) rv

10. QYK, ?, ISG, EPE

(a) NWJ
(b) MVI
(c) NVI
(d) MVJ

11. 10, 22, 46, 94 ?

(a) 180
(b) 184
(c) 190
(d) 140

12. 110, 132, 156, ?, 210

(a) 162
(b) 172
(c) 182
(d) 192

13. 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ?

(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 12

14. CAD : FDG : : XZW : ?

(a) IQJ
(b) CAD
(c) ZBY
(d) UWT

15. Taste : Tongue : : Walk : ?

(a) Pavement
(b) Crutch
(c) Legs
(d) Walking sticks

16. CHIMNEY : SMOKE : : _____ : ____

(a) Gun : Bullet
(b) House : Roof
(c) Clay : Ceramic
(d) Tea : Kettle

17. 5 : 124 : : 7 : ?

(a) 342
(b) 343
(c) 248
(d) 125

18. 3265 : 4376 : : 4673 : ?

(a) 2154
(b) 5487
(c) 3562
(d) 5784

19. Substitute the correct mathematical symbols in place of * in the following equation:
16*4*5*14*6

(a) ÷ – = ×
(b) – × + =
(c) ÷ × = +
(d) ÷ + = –

20. Find out the missing number.
8      9      9
6      7      8
9     11     ?
39   52   59

(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13

21. Find out the wrong number from the given series.
5, 27, 61, 122, 213, 340, 509

(a) 27
(b) 61
(c) 122
(d) 509

22. If 2 x 2 = 16, 2 x 3 = 36, 2 x 4 =64, then 2 x 6 = ?

(a) 72
(b) 80
(c) 96
(d) 144

23. In the following series, the equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
9 x 8 x 6 = 896, 7 x 6 x 8 = 678, 8 x 7 x 5 = ?

(a) 875
(b) 785
(c) 578
(d) 758

24. If ‘x’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘x’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’ then
(15 – 10) ÷ (130 + 10) x 50 = ?

(a) 1800
(b) 113
(c) 2000
(d) 123

25. If the letters in ‘PRABA’ are coded as 27595 and ‘THILAK’ are coded 368451, how can ‘BHARATHI’ be coded?

(a) 96575368
(b) 57686535
(c) 96855368
(d) 37536689

26. A father tells his son, “I was three times of your present age when you were born”. If the fathers present age is 48 years, how old was the boy 4 years ago?

(a) 24 years
(b) 8 years
(c) 12 years
(d) 16 years

27. A and B are brother and sister respectively. C is A’s father. D is C’s sister and E is D’s mother. How is B related to E?

(a) Grand-daughter
(b) Grand-grand-daughter
(c) Aunt
(d) Daughter

28. Four persons M, N, O and P are playing cards. M is on the right of N and P is on the left of O. Then which of the following are partners?

(a) P and O
(b) M and P
(c) M and N
(d) N and P

29. If ‘EDITION’ is written as ‘IDETNOI’ how is ‘MEDICAL’ written in that code?

(a) DEMILAC
(b) LACIMED
(c) DIEMCAL
(d) CADILEM

Directions: Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

30. Statements:
1. All English movies are violent.
2. Some people like watching English movies.
Conclusions:
I. All people watching English movies like violence.
II. All people who like violence watch English movies.

(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows
(d) Both I and II follow

Direction: Select the different one

31.

(a) Telephone
(b) Tape – recorder
(c) Transistor
(d) Telescope

32.

(a) Glue
(b) Oil
(c) Paste
(d) Cement

33.

(a) XZUS
(b) OQLJ
(c) HJFE
(d) FHCA

34.

(a) KNPS
(b) RUWZ
(c) MPRU
(d) PRSU

35.

(a) 26 : 62
(b) 36 : 63
(c) 46 : 64
(d) 56 : 18

36.

(a) 6958
(b) 7948
(c) 6895
(d) 9783

Direction: Complete the series

37. m_nm_n_an_a_ma_

(a) amammn
(b) aammnn
(c) ammanm
(d) aamnan

Direction: Arrange the following in meaningful order

38. (1) Probation (2) Interview (3) Selection (4) Appointment (5) Advertisement (6) Application

(a) 5 6 4 2 3 1
(b) 5 6 3 2 4 1
(c) 5 6 2 3 4 1
(d) 6 5 4 2 3 1

39. If E = 5, PEN = 35, then PAGE = ?

(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 36
(d) 27

40. If the word PORTER can be coded as MBNZQN, then how can REPORT be written?

(a) NQMBNZ
(b) NQBMNZ
(c) NBQMNZ
(d) NQMNBZ

41. In certain code, the words COME AT ONCE were written as XLNVZGLMXV. In the same code which of the following would be OK?

(a) LM
(b) LP
(c) KM
(d) KL

42. If ‘+’ means minus, ‘-‘ means multiplication, ‘,’ means plus,  and ‘x’ means division, then 1515 ? 3 + 10 x 5 , 5 =

(a) 52
(b) 48
(c) 22
(d) 5

Direction: Select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word

43. ADMINISTRATION

(a) STATION
(b) TRADITION
(c) MINISTER
(d) RATION

44. DISAPPOINTMENT

(a) POINTER
(b) OINTMENT
(c) TENEMENT
(d) POSITION

45. DECOMPOSITION

(a) COMPOSE
(b) ECONOMIST
(c) POSITION
(d) DOCTOR

46. INTELLIGENCE

(a) NEGLECT
(b) GENTLE
(c) INCITE
(d) CANCEL

Direction: Select the picture that would go in the empty box so that the two bottom pictures are related in the same way as the top two are related.

47.

 9

48.

10

49.

 11

50.

12

General Awareness

51. Foot and mouth disease occurs in?

(a) Cattle only
(b) Cattle and sheep only
(c) Cattle and pigs only
(d) Cattle, sheep and pigs

52. Gypsum is used in the case of soils which are?

(a) saline
(b) alkaline
(c) water-logged
(d) clayey

53. In milk, fat content is reduced during?

(a) winter
(b) summer
(c) rainy season
(d) spring season

54. In human body, iron is stored in?

(a) erythrocytes
(b) blood
(c) liver
(d) spleen

55. Scientific Policy Resolution of Government of India was announced in?

(a) 1958
(b) 1968
(c) 1978
(d) 1985

56. National Institute of Immunology and National Institute of Science, Technology & Development Studies are located in?

(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bangalore
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi

57. Which of the following substances is used as a refrigerant in refrigerators?

(a) Chloroform
(b) Carbon disulphide
(c) Liquid nitrogen
(d) Dichloro fluromethane

58. Of the following scientists who was not awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) Madam Curie
(b) Linus Pauling
(c) John Bardeen
(d) Albert Einstein

59. The maximum fixation of solar energy is done by?

(a) man
(b) green plants
(c) fungi
(d) protozoa

60. Nitrogen in air?

(a) is essential for the body
(b) dilutes oxygen which is very active in pure form
(c) makes oxygen soluble in blood
(d) decreases the density of air

61. What are noble metals?

(a) elements that do not form compounds ordinarily
(b) Metals having very light weight
(c) Metals that do not corrode or tarnish in air or water
(d) Metals that do not form compounds ordinarily

62. After boiling rice grains become swollen and occupy more space because?

(a) solids enlarge on absorbing heat
(b) carbohydrate content becomes more
(c) starch dwells in contact with water and heat
(d) rice has plenty of fat content

63. The Sea of Tranquility and Ocean of Storms are on?

(a) The Moon
(b) The Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter

64. In which atmospheric layer are the communication satellites located?

(a) Stratosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Exosphere

65. Contours are lines showing?

(a) Places on earth of equal rainfall
(b) Places of same temperature
(c) Places on earth at the same altitude
(d) None of these

66. The layers of the earths crust are distinguished by their?

(a) thickness and depth
(b) density and temperature
(c) metallic content and rocks
(d) All the above

67. The most abundant constituents of earths crust are?

(a) igneous rocks
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks
(d) granite

68. Seasonal contrasts are maximum in?

(a) low latitudes
(b) high latitudes
(c) mid latitudes
(d) sub tropics

69. Which of the following is not a minor product derived from forests?

(a) Nuts and gums
(b) Tannin
(c) Pitch and turpentine
(d) Pulp

70. Which of the following Indian islands lies between India and Sri Lanka?

(a) Elephanta
(b) Nicobar
(c) Rameshwaram
(d) Salsette

71. The Gero, Khasi and Jaintia hills were formed in the same age as the?

(a) Himalayas
(b) Malwa Plateau
(c) Siwalik range
(d) Himachal range

72. The youngest rivers in India originate from?

(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Himalayas
(d) Deccan Plateau

73. Where would you experience a dry winter?

(a) The Ganga plain
(b) North-eastern India
(c) Kashmir
(d) Coromandal Coast

74. The place in India receiving the lowest rainfall is?

(a) Leh
(b) Jaisalmer
(c) Bikaner
(d) Jodhpur

75. The retreating south-west monsoon does not affect?

(a) Orissa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

76. Which of the following regions has the minimum season variations in Temperature?

(a) The Shillong Plateau
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) The Kerala coast
(d) The entire peninsula

77. The soils which have supported agriculture for centuries without much manuring or fallowing are?

(a) alluvial and laterite soils
(b) red and laterite soils
(c) black and alluvial soils
(d) laterite and black soils

78. The minimum forest cover necessary to maintain ecological balance is?

(a) 50% of the total land area
(b) 40% of the total land area
(c) 33% of the total land area
(d) 25% of the total land area

79. Where is the greatest variety of flowers found?

(a) Kerala
(b) Uttar Pradesh hills
(c) Assam
(d) Sikkim

80. Where is the sex ratio lowest?

(a) Punjab
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Sikkim

81. The maximum percentage of the tribal population in India consists of?

(a) Santhals
(b) Bhils
(c) Mundas
(d) Nagas

82. Match the following?
         I                             II
A. Jarawas        1. Tamil Nadu
B. Abor              2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Kotas            3. Bihar
D. Gaddi           4. Arunachal Pradesh
E. Banjara        5. Andaman & Nicobar

     A B C D E
(a) 5 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3 5
(c) 5 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 5 2 1 3

83. The Periyar Sanctuary in Kerala is renowned for?

(a) tiger
(b) lion
(c) wild elephant
(d) spotted deer

84. The most rabi crop is?

(a) Barley
(b) Jute
(c) Wheat
(d) Rice

85. Economically, the most important forests of India are?

(a) Tidal forests
(b) Thorn forests
(c) Evergreen forests
(d) Tropical deciduous forests

86. Which of the following are not khariff crops?

(a) Bajra and maize
(b) Rice and Jowar
(c) Sugarcane and groundnut
(d) Barley and mustard

87. Which multipurpose project was taken up first of all after independence?

(a) Bhakra Nangal Project
(b) Damodar Valley Project
(c) Kosi project
(d) None

88. Which of the following projects is administered by more than one State?

(a) Nagarjunasagar
(b) Kosi
(c) Hirakud
(d) Tungabhadra

89. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of a multipurpose project?

(a) Generation of thermal power
(b) Development of fisheries
(c) Flood control
(d) Supply of drinking water

90. Marine fisheries in India face an important limitation of development in?

(a) coastal ocean currents
(b) lack of enterprise in fishermen
(c) coastlines being straight, thus making it difficult to build protected areas
(d) None of these

91. Canal irrigation is most important in north India because the?

(a) soil is porous
(b) level of underground water is high
(c) sources of the canals are the perennial rivers
(d) region is densely populated

92. Which of the following states is the largest producer of mica in India?

(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) all of these

93. Which of the following is contained in the Concurrent List?

(a) Agriculture
(b) Education
(c) Fisheries
(d) Police

94. The Central Governments powers are enumerated in the?

(a) Concurrent list
(b) State List
(c) Union List
(d) federal List

95. The number of members in a Finance Commission, including the Chairman is?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5

96. The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in?

(a) Article 358
(b) Article 368
(c) Article 320
(d) Article 356

97. Which one of the following amendments has been described as Mini-Constitution?

(a) Forty-Third
(b) Forty-second
(c) Forty four
(d) Thirty-Ninth

98. The Zonal Councils which aim at ensuring cooperation amongst various States are?

(a) Provided in the Constitution
(b) Created by the States Reorganisation Act
(c) Created by the Forty-Second Amendment during emergency
(d) None of the above

99. The Zonal Councils discuss matters relating to?

(a) economic and social planning
(b) border disputes
(c) inter-state transport
(d) all the above matters

100. Which one of the following is not a UN member country?

(a) Greece
(b) Taiwan
(c) Portugal
(d) Australia

Quantitative

101. If a * b = 2a + 3b – ab, then the value of (3 * 5 + 5 * 3) is

(a) 10
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2

102. Simplify: (0.0347 x 0.0347 x 0.0347 + (0.9653)3)/((0.0347)2 – (0.347)(0.09653) + (0.9653)2)

(a) 0.9306
(b) 1.0009
(c) 1.0050
(d) 1

103. If p = 124, then ∛(p(p^2+ 3p+3)+ 1)= ?

(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 123
(d) 125

104. If √(1-x^3∕100)=3∕5, then x equals

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 36

105. I multiplied a natural number with 18 and another by 21 and added the products. Which one of the following could be the sum?

(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2006
(d) 2002

106. The product of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 4. The sum of the squares of the two numbers is

(a) 135
(b) 240
(c) 73
(d) 106

107. √(8+√(57+√(38+√(108+√169) ) ) ) =?

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

108. The square root of 14 + 6  is

(a) 2 + √5
(b) 3 + √5
(c) 5 + √3
(d) 3 + 2√5

109. When 231 is divided by 5, the remainder is

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

110. The value of 1/(1+1/(1+1/(1+1/(1+2/3))))

(a) 21/13
(b) 17/3
(c) 34/21
(d) 8/5

111. The unit’s digit in the product (122)173 is

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

112. The value of (2+√3)/(2-√3)+(2-√3)/(2+√3)+ (√3+1)/(√3-1) is

(a) 16-√3
(b) 4-√3
(c) 2-√3
(d) 2+√3

113. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C together do it in 15 days. If A’s efficiency is twice that of C, then the days required for B alone to finish the work is

(a) 60
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 15

114. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their HCF is 13. The number of such pairs is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

115. Two vessels are filled with the mixtures of water and milk in the ratio of 3 : 4 and 5 : 3 respectively. If the mixtures are poured into a third vessel, the ratio of water and milk in the third vessel will be

(a) 15 : 12
(b) 53 : 59
(c) 20 : 9
(d) 59 : 53

116.   I am three times as old as my son. 15 years hence, I will be twice as old as my son. The sum of our ages is?

(a) 48 years
(b) 60 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 72 years

117. Three bells ring simultaneously at 11:00 am. They ring at regular intervals of 20 minutes, 30 minutes, and 40 minutes respectively. The time when all the three ring together next is

(a) 2 : 00 pm
(b) 1 : 00 pm
(c) 1 : 15 pm
(d) 1 : 30 pm

118. A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle and has area 121  cm2. If the same wire is bent to form a circle, the area enclosed by the wire in cm2 is

(a) 364.5
(b) 693.5
(c) 346.5
(d) 639.5

119. A child reshapes a cone made of clay with height 24 cm and radius 6 cm into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 48

120. Water flows into the tank which is 200m long and 150 m wide, through the pipe of cross – section 0.3 m x 0.2 m at 20 km/hour. Then the time (in hours) for the water level in the tank to reach 8 m is

(a) 50
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 200

121. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C can do the same work in 15 days, C and A can do the same work in 20 days. The time taken by A, B and C to do the same work is

(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 20 days

122.   A is 50% as efficient as B. C does the half of the work in 20 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in

(a) 5days
(b) 6 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 7 days

123. A man bought an article listed at Rs. 1,500 with a discount of 20% offered on the list price. What additional discount must be offered to the man to bring the net price to Rs. 1,104?

(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 15%

124. If a/b = c/d = e/f = 3, then (2a2 + 3c2 + 4e2) / (2b2 + 3d2 + 4f2) = ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 9

125.   The diameter of a wheel is 98 cm. the number of revolutions in which it will have to cover a distance of 1540m is

(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 700
(d) 800

126. In an equilateral triangle ABC of side 10cm, the side BC is trisected at D. the length in cm of AD is

(a) 3√7
(b) 7√3
(c) (10√7)/3
(d) (7√10)/3

127. The cost price of an article is Rs. 800. After allowing a discount of 10%, a gain of 12.5% was made. Then the marked price of the article is

(a) Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs. 1,100
(c) Rs. 1,200
(d) Rs. 1,300

128. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 10:7. If the family’s expenses are Rs. 10,500, then the saving of the family is

(a) Rs. 4,500
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 5,000

129. The average mathematics marks of the two sections Section A and B of Class IX in the annual examination is 74. The average marks of Section A are 77.5 and that of Section B is 70. The ration of the number of students of Section A and B is

(a) 7:8
(b) 7:5
(c) 8:7
(d) 8:5

130. The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 78 kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is

(a) 88.95 kg
(b) 89.25 kg
(c) 89.55 kg
(d) 89.85 kg

131. The ratio of the volumes of water and glycerin in 240 cc of a mixture is 1 : 3. The quantity of water in cc that should be added to the mixture so that the new ratio of the volumes of water and glycerin becomes 2 : 3 is

(a) 55
(b) 60
(c) 62.5
(d) 64

132. At present the ratio of the ages of Maya and Chaya is 6 : 5 and fifteen years from now  the ratio will get changed to 9 : 8, Maya’s present age is

(a) 21 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 40 years

133. A man sold 20 apples for Rs. 100 and gained 20%. How many apples did he buy for Rs. 100?

(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 25

134. A rectangular sheet of metal  is 40 cm by 15 cm. Equal squares of side 4 cm are cut off at the corners and the remainder is folded  up to form an open rectangular box. The volume of the box is

(a) 896 cm3
(b) 986 cm3
(c) 600 cm3
(d) 916 cm3

135.   If 78 is divided into three parts which are in ratio 1 : 1/3 : 1/6, the middle part is

(a) 9 1/3
(b) 13
(c) 17 1/3
(d) 18 1/3

136. The selling price of 10 oranges is the cost price of 13 oranges. Then the profit percentage is

(a) 30%
(b) 10%
(c) 13%
(d) 3%

137.   The marked price of a radio is Rs. 480. The shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% and gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his gain percent would be

(a) 18%
(b) 18.5%
(c) 20.5%
(d) 20%

138.   The price of sugar goes up by 20%. If a housewife wants the expenses on sugar to remain the same, she should reduce the consumption by

(a) 76/5%
(b) 50/3%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

139. In a factory 60% of the workers are above 30 years and of these 75% are males and the rest are females. If there are 1350 male workers above 30 years, the total number of workers in the factory is

(a) 3000
(b) 2000
(c) 1800
(d) 1500

140.   Walking at ¾ of his usual speed, a man is 1 ½ hours late. His usual time to cover the same distance, in hours is

(a) 9/2
(b) 4
(c) 11/2
(d) 5

141. The floor of a room is of size 4m x 3m and its height is 3m. The walls and the ceiling of the room require painting. The area to be painted is

(a) 66m2
(b) 54m2
(c) 43m2
(d) 33m2

142. When the price of an article was reduced by 20% its sale increased by 80%. What was the net effect on the scale?

(a) 44% increase
(b) 44% decrease
(c) 66% increase
(d) 75% increase

143. A sum of money becomes 8 times in 3 years, if the rate is compounded annually. In how much time will the same amount at the same compound rate becomes sixteen times?

(a) 6 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 8 years
(d) 5 years

144. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1/9 of the principle and the number of years is equal to the rate percent per annum. The rate per annum is

(a) 3%
(b) 1/3%
(c) 10/3%
(d) 3/10%

145. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest of a certain sum of money at 20% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 48. The sum is

(a) Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs. 1,200
(c) Rs. 1,500
(d) Rs. 2,000

146. Shri X goes to his office by scooter at a speed of 30 km/hr and reaches 6 minutes earlier. If he goes at a speed of 24 km/hr, he reaches 5 minutes late. The distance to his office is

(a) 20 km
(b) 21 km
(c) 22 km
(d) 24 km

147.    If the average of m numbers is n2 and that of n numbers is m2, then the average of (m + n) numbers is

(a) m/n
(b) mn
(c) m – n
(d) m + n

148. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 6 cm and 8 cm. if the smaller chord is at a distance of 4 cm from the centre, the distance of the other chord from the centre is

(a) 5 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 3 cm

149. A and B walk from one corner of a rectangular field to the corner just diagonally opposite. A walks along the diagonal, and B walks along the sides, reaching the finishing point together. If the ratio of the length and breadth of the field is 3 : 4, the ratio of their speed is

(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 7

150. If 2x + 3y : 3x + 5y = 18 : 29, then x/y is equal to

(a) ¾
(b) 4/3
(c) 2/3
(d) 5/6

General English

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The wise old Wazir was Famous for his judgement and people came to him for justice from all parts of the country.  One-day two men came to his court and claimed ownership of an extraordinarily good-looking horse. It was a black beauty indeed. One of the men was tall, very well dressed and soft-spoken. The other one was just the opposite. Each of them said that the horse was his. The Wazir heard them patiently and asked them to leave the horse and come to in next morning. Both the men came the next morning. The Wazir asked his soldiers to give the horse to the tall man and to arrest the other man. The tall man wanted to know how the Wazir had learnt the truth. “Very simple”, said he, “Firstly, a man of your appearance and manners could not have been the thief. Still, I wanted to be sure, just after you  and left the court. I asked one of my soldiers to leave the horse free and to see whom it followed. It went after you.  This hint was enough for me.”

151. Which of the following best describes the other man?

(a) Ill-dressed, short-statured, loud-voice
(b) Tall, ill-dressed, courteous
(c) Not well-dressed, short but good mannered
(d) Thin, poorly-built, harsh in expression

152. The Wazir discovered the real owner of the horse—

(a) by arresting the other man
(b) from the appearance and good manners of the tall man
(c) by knowing whom the horse followed
(d) by leaving the horse free

153. With the Wazir’s wisdom, the tall man was–

(a) consoled
(b) impressed
(c) undecided
(d) confused

154. People came to the Wazir from all places because he was —

(a) a wise judge
(b) very famous
(c) an old judge
(d) an old Wazir

155. The story proves that —

(a) the court soldiers were very smart
(b) the judge was quite old
(c) the horse was very clever
(d) the judge was indeed quite intelligent

Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words as printed in bold as used in the passage?

156. Claimed

(a) Demanded as a right
(b) Promised
(c) Declared
(d) Possessed

157. Followed

(a) Pursued
(b) Owned
(c) Went after
(d) Interrupted

158. Hint

(a) Advice
(b) Clue
(c) Truth
(d) Nod

159. Patiently

(a) Politely
(b) Willingly
(c) Sufficiently
(d) Calmly

160. Still

(a) However
(b) Calm
(c) Quiet
(d) Though

Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the  passage ?

161. Extraordinarily

(a) Exceptionally
(b) Unusually
(c) Exactly
(d) Plainly

162. Sure

(a) Promising
(b) Definite
(c) Unfaithful
(d) Uncertain

163. Famous

(a) Gentle
(b) Notorious
(c) Easily known
(d) Widely known

164. Arrest

(a) Trap
(b) Imprison
(c) Catch attention
(d) Release

165. Enough

(a) Inadequate
(b) Sufficient
(c) Understandable
(d) Scarce

There is a mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out the part in which the mistake occurs.

166. (a) The travel / (b) across the sandy desert / (c) was an exhausting one / (d) for the caravan.

167.   (a) No sooner did / (b) he announce the / (c) tour the children / (d) screamed with great joy.

168. (a) His only / (b) frame to claim is that / (c) he is the son of / (d) a rich man.

169. (a) It did not / (b) take me very long / (c) to size up my / (d) fellow interviewees.

170. (a) I am pleased to sanction / (b) one special increment / (c) to all the employees / (d) with this month.

171. (a) I will put on / (b) a note in this regard / (c) for your consideration / (d) and necessary decision.

172. (a) If the teacher / (b) is good the students / (c) will respond / (d) positively to them.

173. (a) Rajesh has collected / (b) all the necessary documents / (c) and have written a good paper / (d) for his conference.

174. (a) The old chap / (b) who lives in the little / (c) hut on the beach / (d) seems to be a real odd bird.

175. (a) I have been racking / (b) my brain all the days to remember / (c) the name of the agency / (d) that Sheila recommended.

Give one word for each of the following utterances:

176.   A person who does not believe in any religion–

(a) Philatelist
(b) Rationaslist
(c) Atheist
(d) Pagan

177.   A post without remuneration–

(a) Voluntary
(b) Sinecure
(c) Honorary
(d) Involuntary

178.   A person who rules without consulting the opinion of
others–

(a) Democrat
(b) Bureaucrat
(c) Autocrat
(d) Fanatic

179.   Through which light cannot pass–

(a) Dull
(b) Dark
(c) Obscure
(d) Opaque

180.   A person who brings goods illegally into the country–

(a) Exporter
(b) Importer
(c) Smuggler
(d) Imposter

181.   A person who has just started learning–

(a) Foreman
(b) Accomplice
(c) Novice
(d) Apprentice

182.   A person interested in reading books and nothing else–

(a) Student
(b) Book worm
(c) Scholar
(d) Book keeper

183.   One who resides in a country of which he is not citizen–

(a) Alien
(b) Native
(c) Foreigner
(d) Prodigal

184.   Anything which destroys the effect of poison–

(a) Serum
(b) Antiseptic
(c) Seramycin
(d) Antidote

185.   A cure for all diseases–

(a) Excorcism
(b) Incantation
(c) Panacca
(d) Antibiotic

In the following items there is a word odd in one respect or another from the rest. Identify such words.

186.  

(a) Goal
(b) Guile
(c) Gall
(d) Whole

187.  

(a) Whole
(b) Full
(c) Fool
(d) Complete

188.  

(a) On
(b) Upon
(c) Than
(d) Over

189.  

(a) Bring
(b) Going
(c) Coming
(d) Rinning

190.  

(a) A
(b) An
(c) The
(d) That

In each question below four words are given. One of which is correctly spelt. Choose the word  with correct spelling.

191.  

(a) Disguise
(b) Desguise
(c) Disguese
(d) Disgiuse

192.  

(a) Buccaner
(b) Buccanner
(c) Bucaneer
(d) Buccaneer

193.  

(a) Experence
(b) Experince
(c) Experience
(d) Exparience

194.  

(a) Pionear
(b) Pioneer
(c) Pyoneer
(d) Pienear

195.  

(a) Achievement
(b) Achievment
(c) Acheivement
(d) Achivement

Out of the four alternatives, choose the ones that best expresses the meaning of the given word

196. Salacious

(a) Satisfied
(b) Lustful
(c) Angry
(d) Unhappy

197. Derive

(a) Sustain
(b) Obtain
(c) Contain
(d) Attain

198. Hallucination

(a) dress
(b) deception
(c) delusion
(d) habitat

199. Analogy

(a) Difference
(b) Comparison
(c) Addition
(d) Deletion

200. Allure

(a) Extol
(b) Excite
(c) Entice
(d) Elicit

Answers:-

1. c 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. b
11. c 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. a 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. a
31. d 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. a
41. b 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a
51. d 52. d 53. d 54. c 55. c 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. b 60. c
61. c 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. d 69. c 70. b
71. c 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. a
81. c 82. c 83. d 84. d 85. d 86. b 87. d 88. a 89. c 90. c
91. a 92. b 93. c 94. d 95. b 96. b 97. b 98. d 99. c 100. b
101. a 102. d 103. d 104. b 105. a 106. d 107. a 108. b 109. b 110. c
111. b 112. a 113. c 114. b 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. c 119. a 120. d
121. b 122. b 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. a 129. c 130. d
131. b 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. c 136. a 137. d 138. b 139. a 140. a
141. b 142. a 143. b 144. c 145. b 146. c 147. b 148. d 149. d 150. a
151. a 152. c 153. b 154. a 155. d 156. a 157. c 158. b 159. d 160. a
161. d 162. b 163. b 164. d 165. d 166. a 167. c 168. b 169. c 170. d
171. a 172. d 173. c 174. d 175. b 176. d 177. c 178. c 179. d 180. c
181. c 182. b 183. a 184. d 185. c 186. d 187. c 188. c 189. a 190. d
191. a 192. d 193. c 194. b 195. a 196. b 197. b 198. c 199. b 200. d

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