SAT or Scholastic Assessment Test is a test which is conducted for admitted under any undergraduate programs in various colleges of USA. SAT is developed, administered and managed by College Entrance Examination Board. Educational Testing Service (ETS) administers this test. SAT Subject test comprises of five general areas, Science, Mathematics, Social Science and History, English and Language.These tests are organized to judge problem solving and critical thinking skills of the candidates.These tests measure their potential and ability to undertake bachelor’s program.Here given Sat exam sample papers
Sat Exam Sample Papers
Here are some questions for practice from each of the five subjects.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS ON MATHEMATICS
1. The River town Little League is divided into d divisions. Each division has t teams, and each team has p players. How many players are there in the entire league?
(A) d + t + p
(C) pt / d
(D) dt / p
(E) d / pt
2. A bag contains 25 slips of paper, on each of which a different integer from 1 to 25 is written. Blindfolded, Scott draws one of the slips of paper. He wins if the number on the slip he draws is a multiple of 3 or 5. What is the probability that Scott wins?
3. If the average (arithmetic mean) of three consecutive integers is A, which of the following must be true?
I. One of the numbers is equal to A.
II. The average of two of the three numbers is A.
III. A is an integer
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II and III
4. If, for any number b, b# = b + 1 and #b = b – 1, which of the following is NOT equal to (3#) (#5)?
(A) (1#) (#9)
(B) 7# + #9
(C) (4#) (#4)
(D) (7#) (#3)
(E) (15#) / (#2)
5.How many number of integers are there between 2008 and 2,00,82,008 including 2008 and 2,00,82,008 such that the sum of the digits in the square is 42?
6. Is it possible to find two functions f and g such that the domain of f is not finite, the domain of g is finite, gof () is defined? Justify your answer?
7. If k is an integer then which of the following is true?
A) An integer of the form 4k+1 can always be put in the form 2k-1
B) An integer of the form 4k+3 can always be put in the form 2k+1
C) An integer of the form 2k-1 can always be put in the form 4k+1
D) An integer of the form 2k-1 can always be put in the form 4k+3
E) An integer of the form 2k+1 can always be put in the form 4k+3
8. If 1216451*0408832000 is equal to 19!, where * denotes a digit, then the missing digit represented by * is
9. In a right angled triangle what is the relation between the square of the altitude on to the hypotenuse and the product of the segments of the hypotenuse?
10. All the numbers between 1947 and 2008 are written, including 1947 and 2008. From the list, all the multiples of 3 and 5 are struck off. The sum of the remaining numbers is:-
ENGLISH(Sat exam sample papers)
Fill up the blanks with appropriate words in the following sentences.
1. Like foolish people who continue to live near an active volcano, many of us are — about the — of atomic warfare and its attendant destruction.
2. By communicating through pointing and making gestures, Charles was able to overcome any — difficulties that arose during his recent trip to Japan.
3. In order that future generations may — the great diversity of animal life, it is the task of the International Wildlife Preservation Commission to prevent endangered species from becoming —.
4. For all the — involved in the study of seals, we Arctic researchers have occasional moments of pure — over some new discovery.
5. Despite the growing — of Hispanic actors in the American theater, many Hispanic experts feel that the Spanish-speaking population is — on the stage.
Questions 6 and 7 are based on the following passage.
The Rosetta Stone! What a providential find that was. And what a remarkable set of circumstances it took for people to be able to read Egyptian hieroglyphics after a hiatus of some 1400 years. It even took a military campaign. In 1798, Napoleon Bonaparte’s army attacked British-held Egypt, seeking to cut off England from the riches of the Middle East. Rebuilding a fortress, a French soldier uncovered a block of basalt inscribed with writing in three distinct scripts; Greek, demotic script (an everyday cursive form of Egyptian), and Egyptian hieroglyphs. At that moment, modern Egyptology began.
6. The primary purpose of lines 1-5 is to:-
(A) describe the physical attributes of an artifact
(B) underscore the difficulty of translating ancient texts
(C) indicate a new direction for linguistic research
(D) qualify an excessively sweeping generalization
(E) emphasize the unusual background of a discovery
7. The author’s tone in writing of the discovery of the Rosetta Stone can best be characterized as
Some or all parts of the following sentences are underlines. The first choice, (A), simply repeats the underlined part of the sentence. The other four choices present four alternative ways to phrase the underlined part. Select the answer that produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact. In selecting your choice, be sure that it is standard written English, and that is expresses the meaning of the original sentence.
8. In the tennis match Don was paired with Bill; Ed, with AI.
(A) was paired with Bill; Ed, with AI
(B) was paired with Bill; but Ed was paired with AI
(C) was paired with Bill, and it was Ed with AI
(D) pairing with Bill; Wd being with AI
(E) pairing with Bill; Ed was with AI
9. In the Middle Ages, a lord’s intricate wall hangings were more than mere tapestries they were a measure of his consequence and wealth.
(A) mere tapestries they were a measure
(B) merely tapestries they were a measure
(C) mere tapestries and were a measure
(D) mere tapestries; they were a measure
(E) mere tapestries, while they were a measure
10. With the exception of Frank and I, everyone in the class finished the assignment before the bell rang.
(A) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
(B) Frank and me, everyone in the class finished
(C) Frank and me, everyone in the class had finished
(D) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
SOCIAL SCIENCE( Sat exam sample papers)
1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a) ILO – London
b) ICJ – Hague
c) UNESCO – Washington
d) WHO – Paris
2. Arrange the following Indo-Pak events in correct chronological order.
A. Creation of Bangladesh
B. Tashkant Declaration
C. Simla Agreement
D. Lahore Declaration
Which order is correct?
a) A C D B
b) B A C D
c) D B A C
d) A B C D
3. Which pairs are correctly matched? Select the correct alternative.
a. Brahmo Samaj – Dayanand Saraswati
b. Arya Samaj- Vivekananda
c. Ramakrishna Mission – Raja Ram Mohan Roy
d. Aligarh Movement – Syed Ahmed Khan
e. Veda Samaj – Cembeti Sridharlu Naidu
A. a and d
B. b and e
C. d and e
D. c and d
4. Stated below are some statements.
a. The Modern Age suddenly came into existence
b. The Renaissance emphasized the value of reason and scientific temper in life.
c. The Industrial Revolution in England led to the decline of Cottage Industries in India.
Which statements are true?
A) a and b
B) b and c
C) a and c
D) a, b and c
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:-
The later part of the eighteenth century saw two revolutions, which played an important role in the making of the modem world. The first one involved English Government against its thirteen colonies. Most of the people settled in these colonies had come from England.
5. The passage is referring to two revolutions. Which of the following are these?
A. Russian Revolution and French Revolution
B. American Revolution and French Revolution
C. American Revolution and Chinese Revolution
D. French Revolution and Chinese Revolution
6. Which of the following Revolutions is related to the thirteen English Colonies?
A. Russian Revolution
B. American Revolution
C. Industrial Revolution
D. French Revolution
7. A volcano erupts on the ocean floor and a ship is located on the oceanic surface very close to the epicentre. Which one of the following conditions will the ship face?
A) get toppled
B) drift away
D) not much of a change
8.Read the following statements
A. The towns in Canadian prairies developed after the construction of Canadian Pacific Railway.
B. Most of the Cities of India were connected by railways after these had already developed.
Which one of the following is correct?
a) A is true, B is false
b) A is false, B is true
c) Both A and B are true
d) Both A and B are false
9.Which one of the following sequences of the atmospheric layers will a space shuttle encounter while returning to the earth?
A. Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere
B. Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere
C. Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere
D. Ionosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere
10. Given below are some characteristics of a region.
a. Rainfall is scanty
b. Difference between day and night temperature is high
c. Very little vegetation is found
Which of the following regions has all these features?
CHEMISTRY (sat exam sample papers)
1.Which of the following is TRUE for an operating Voltaic cell ?
A. G>0 ; E=0
B. G=0 ; E=0
C. G=0; E>0
D. G<0 ; E<0
E. G>0 ; E<0
2. Which of the following produce a DECREASE in the entropy of the system?
A. Dissolving Sugar in a cup of coffee.
B. Boiling Water in a pot.
C. Allowing the liquid propane in a gas grill to escape from tank.
D. Condensation of Water on the surface of a glass of iced tea on a hot summer day.
3. What is the significance of the third law of thermodynamics ? Choose the best answer.
A. The absolute entropy of a substance decreases with increasing temperature.
B. The Entropy of the Universe is Constant.
C. The absolute value of Entropy can be measured for some very pure substances.
D. The change in Entropy of the Universe must be positive for a spontaneous process.
E. The change in Entropy of the Universe equals the sum of the change in entropy of the system plus the change in entropy of the surroundings.
4. In which case the spontaneity of a reaction depends on temperature?
A. H=0 and S<0
B. H>0 and S<0
C. H<0 and S=0
D. H>0 and S=0
E. H<0 and S>0
5. Which of the following influences the rate of a chemical reaction performed in a solution?
b. activation energy
c. presence of a catalyst
d. Concentration of reactants
e. All of above
6. The rate laws for certain enzyme-activated reaction in your body have a specific rate constant k with units of M/s. What is the overall order of these reactions?
e)Can not be determined
7. Which of the following statements best describe how a catalyst works?
a) A catalyst Changes the potential energy of reactants and products.
b) A catalyst decreases the temperature of the reaction which leads to a faster rate.
c) A catalyst lowers the activation energyfor the reaction by providing a different reaction mechanism.
d) A catalyst destroys some of the reactants which lowers the concentration of the reactants.
e) A catalyst raises the activation energy for the reaction which produces a faster rate.
8. From the following choices, select the one that would be the less acidic?
a. 0.1 M hydrochloric acid.
b. 0.1 M acetic acid.
c. 0.1 M sodium acetate.
d. 0.1 M ammonium chloride.
e. Pure water.
9. A buffer solution can be prepared by mixing:
a. A strong acid and its conjugate base
b. A strong base and its conjugate acid
c. A weak acid and its conjugate base
d. A weak acid and a strong acid.
e. All of the above options are correct.
10. Which of the following metals could be used successfully to galvanize iron ?
SAMPLE QUESTIONS ON PHYSICS
1.Two men leave a place with an interval of t between them. They arrive at one end of a bridge of length L with time interval of T and reach the other end of the bridge at the same time. Find the ratio of their speeds. How far is the nearer end of the bridge from their starting point?
2. A solid ball of radius 10 cm floats with half its volume submerged in water. It is coated with a very thin layer of some very dense material of mass 200 g and now it just sinks. Find the density of the material of the ball. What would happen if water is replaced with a liquid of relative density 0.8.
3.A ball falls from a height of 2 m and undergoes repeated collisions with the ground. Each time it hits the ground it raises to half of the height from which it fell. What is the time interval between third and fourth hits with the ground? What is the total distance traveled till the moment it makes fourth hit with the ground? Neglect the time of contact with the ground.
4. A man of height H stands in front of a mirror hung on a vertical wall in front of him. He is just able see his toes in the mirror. He can also just see his shoulders, which are a height h above the ground. What is the size of the mirror and how far above the ground is the top edge of the mirror?
5. Two particles are moving round concentric circular paths of radii r1 and r2 (r2= 3r1) and are closest to each other at a certain moment. The particle on the outer path has slower speed v2 as compared to the inner one which has a speed v1 (v1=2v2). Find the least time interval between their successive appearances at their initial positions at the same time?
6. It is not as hot at some distance at the side of a flame as the same distance above it. Why is this so?
7. The bob of a simple pendulum is made of metal. If a wooden bob replaces the metallic bob, how do the time periods of oscillations compare?
8. A lens of focal length f produces an image of an object located 30 cm on one side of it at a distance of 60 cm on the other side. If the lens is replaced by another of 3f/4, where would the image form? If the image has to form at the earlier position by what distance should the object be shifted?
9. A train of length 300 m passes through two tunnels with a gap of 400 m between them .The tunnels are of length 800 m and 600 m respectively. From the moment it just emerges from the first tunnel to the moment it just disappears in to the second tunnel time elapsed is 60 s. Find the time elapsed between the moments the train just enters the first tunnel to the moment it just leaves the second tunnel.
10. Two candles of identical lengths and different thicknesses were lit. Half of the thin candle and one third of the thick candle could be seen to burn down in 15 minutes. How long after the candles had been lit was the ratio of their lengths 4.
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